Nursing Elites

1. A client requires suctioning every 2 hours. To whom should the nurse delegate this task?

• A. Delegate to a licensed practical nurse (LPN)
• B. Delegate to a registered nurse (RN)
• C. Delegate to a nursing assistant (NA)
• D. Perform the task independently

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to delegate the task to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). LPNs can typically perform suctioning, but it is essential to consider the state's practice guidelines and hospital policy. Option B, delegating to a registered nurse (RN), is not necessary for this task as LPNs are usually competent to handle suctioning. Option C, delegating to a nursing assistant (NA), may not be appropriate as suctioning may require a higher level of training and expertise. Option D, performing the task independently, is not the best choice as delegation is a key aspect of nursing practice to ensure tasks are appropriately assigned based on competency levels.

2. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake for 4 hours following the procedure
• B. Apply cold compresses to the puncture site after the procedure
• C. Instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake after the procedure
• D. Keep the client in a prone position for 12 hours after the procedure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to include in caring for a client scheduled for a lumbar puncture is to instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake after the procedure. Increasing oral fluid intake helps replace cerebrospinal fluid lost during the lumbar puncture and reduces the risk of headaches. Restricting fluid intake (Choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to dehydration. Applying cold compresses (Choice B) is not necessary after a lumbar puncture. Keeping the client in a prone position for 12 hours (Choice D) is not required after a lumbar puncture and can cause discomfort and complications.

3. What is a key component of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure?

• A. Advising on appropriate physical activity and exercise
• B. Fluid restriction to prevent fluid overload
• C. Dietary recommendations, including a low-sodium diet
• D. Medication management, including diuretics and ACE inhibitors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main components of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure include advising on appropriate physical activity and exercise to improve cardiovascular health and overall well-being. While fluid restriction and dietary recommendations are important aspects of heart failure management, advising on physical activity and exercise is crucial for improving cardiac function and quality of life post-discharge. Medication management is also essential but focusing on physical activity is particularly relevant for long-term management and preventing readmissions.

4. How should a healthcare provider respond when a patient expresses concerns about the side effects of a prescribed medication?

• A. Reassure the patient that side effects are rare.
• B. Discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient.
• C. Encourage the patient to speak to the pharmacist.
• D. Refer the patient to another healthcare provider for information.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient expresses concerns about medication side effects, it is crucial for the healthcare provider to discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient. This approach helps the patient make an informed decision about their treatment. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns by reassuring them that side effects are rare may not address the patient's specific worries. Choice C, while pharmacists can provide valuable information, the primary responsibility lies with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as referring the patient to another healthcare provider may disrupt continuity of care and not address the patient's concerns effectively.

5. What are the main differences between a stroke caused by ischemia and one caused by hemorrhage?

• A. Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain
• B. Bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured aneurysm
• C. Administering thrombolytics if within the treatment window
• D. Avoiding anticoagulants and preparing for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain." Ischemic stroke is caused by a blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to reduced blood flow. Hemorrhagic stroke, on the other hand, is caused by bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured blood vessel. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Administering thrombolytics, avoiding anticoagulants, and preparing for surgery are specific management strategies that may apply to ischemic or hemorrhagic strokes but do not define the main differences between the two types of strokes.

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