ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is preparing to administer dopamine hydrochloride 4 mcg/kg/min via continuous infusion. The client weighs 80 kg. How many mL/hr should the nurse set the IV infusion to deliver?
- A. 6 mL/hr
- B. 8 mL/hr
- C. 12 mL/hr
- D. 16 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the correct rate, use the formula: (4 mcg/kg/min * 80 kg) / 800 mcg in 250 mL = 6 mL/hr. This calculation is based on the dose ordered (4 mcg/kg/min) multiplied by the patient's weight in kg (80 kg), divided by the concentration of the drug available (800 mcg in 250 mL) to be infused over 1 hour. Therefore, the correct answer is 6 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Fetal heart rate of 110/min
- B. 1+ pitting edema
- C. Blood pressure 138/80 mm Hg
- D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates decreased kidney perfusion, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Reporting this finding is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority as fetal heart rate of 110/min, 1+ pitting edema, and blood pressure of 138/80 mm Hg are within normal limits for a client with preeclampsia at 38 weeks of gestation.
3. A client is prescribed furosemide and needs to consume potassium-rich foods. Which of the following foods should the client be advised to include in the diet?
- A. Grapes.
- B. Apples.
- C. Bananas.
- D. Rice.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bananas. Bananas are rich in potassium and should be included in the diet of clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic. Grapes, apples, and rice are not as high in potassium as bananas and would not be as effective in replenishing potassium levels in clients taking furosemide.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Clamp the chest tube for 15 minutes every 2 hours.
- B. Empty the drainage collection chamber when it is half full.
- C. Keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest.
- D. Strip the chest tube every 2 hours to maintain patency.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a client with a chest tube is to keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest. This positioning helps prevent fluid from flowing back into the pleural space, ensuring proper drainage and effective functioning of the chest tube. Clamping the chest tube intermittently or stripping it frequently can lead to complications and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage collection chamber at specific intervals may vary based on institutional protocols, but it should be done when it is no more than two-thirds full to prevent backflow and maintain accurate monitoring of drainage output.
5. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Potassium
- B. Sodium
- C. Calcium
- D. Hemoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.
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