ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. In the context of personality disorders, what is a common characteristic of a client with Borderline Personality Disorder?
- A. A need for admiration and a grandiose view of self-importance
- B. Unlawful actions and lack of empathy
- C. Fear of abandonment and impulsiveness
- D. A disregard for others with manipulative behaviors
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fear of abandonment and impulsiveness. Individuals with Borderline Personality Disorder often exhibit intense fears of abandonment, engage in impulsive behaviors such as self-harm or substance abuse, and struggle with unstable relationships. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the characteristic features commonly associated with Borderline Personality Disorder. A need for admiration and grandiosity (Choice A) is more characteristic of Narcissistic Personality Disorder. Unlawful actions and lack of empathy (Choice B) are more typical of Antisocial Personality Disorder. A disregard for others with manipulative behaviors (Choice D) is often seen in individuals with traits of Histrionic or Antisocial Personality Disorders.
2. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication with food
- B. I should report a cough to my provider
- C. I should expect to have facial swelling when taking this medication
- D. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Reporting a cough is crucial when taking lisinopril as it can be a sign of a serious side effect, such as angioedema or cough associated with ACE inhibitors. Option A is incorrect because lisinopril can be taken with or without food. Option C is incorrect as facial swelling is not an expected side effect of lisinopril. Option D is incorrect because lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia, so increasing potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous.
3. A nurse is caring for a female client who has osteoporosis and a new prescription for raloxifene. What should the nurse assess prior to initiating therapy?
- A. Pregnancy status
- B. Bone density
- C. Calcium levels
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy status. Raloxifene is a pregnancy category X drug, which means it can cause serious birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's pregnancy status before initiating therapy. Choice B, bone density, while important in osteoporosis management, is not a specific concern related to initiating raloxifene therapy. Choice C, calcium levels, and choice D, blood pressure, are not directly related to the initiation of raloxifene therapy in a female client with osteoporosis.
4. A county public health nurse is developing a list of interventions to address the three core functions of public health. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include as part of the assurance function?
- A. Use surveillance to investigate outbreaks of foodborne illness
- B. Monitor the incidence rates of varicella every 2 months
- C. Organize an immunization clinic for at-risk members of the community
- D. Educate the community about the health risks of alcohol use
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Organize an immunization clinic for at-risk members of the community.' This intervention is part of the assurance function in public health, as it ensures that the community has access to preventive health services. Choice A is related to the assessment function as it involves surveillance to investigate outbreaks. Choice B is also related to the assessment function since it involves monitoring incidence rates. Choice D is associated with the policy development function as it involves educating the community about health risks.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke involving the right cerebral hemisphere. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings?
- A. Deficits in the right visual field
- B. Unable to discriminate words and letters
- C. Motor retardation
- D. Poor impulse control
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, poor impulse control. Right hemisphere strokes commonly affect judgment and safety awareness, leading to poor impulse control. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect for this scenario. Deficits in the right visual field are associated with left hemisphere strokes, while the inability to discriminate words and letters is typically seen with left hemisphere damage. Motor retardation is more common in strokes affecting the motor areas of the brain, not specifically related to right hemisphere strokes.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access