ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. In the context of personality disorders, what is a common characteristic of a client with Borderline Personality Disorder?
- A. A need for admiration and a grandiose view of self-importance
- B. Unlawful actions and lack of empathy
- C. Fear of abandonment and impulsiveness
- D. A disregard for others with manipulative behaviors
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fear of abandonment and impulsiveness. Individuals with Borderline Personality Disorder often exhibit intense fears of abandonment, engage in impulsive behaviors such as self-harm or substance abuse, and struggle with unstable relationships. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the characteristic features commonly associated with Borderline Personality Disorder. A need for admiration and grandiosity (Choice A) is more characteristic of Narcissistic Personality Disorder. Unlawful actions and lack of empathy (Choice B) are more typical of Antisocial Personality Disorder. A disregard for others with manipulative behaviors (Choice D) is often seen in individuals with traits of Histrionic or Antisocial Personality Disorders.
2. A nurse caring for a client under airborne precautions notes that the client is scheduled for a nuclear scan. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Planning to have the nuclear scan performed at the bedside
- B. Calling the nuclear medicine department and telling the technician that the test will have to be delayed until airborne precautions have been discontinued
- C. Asking the technicians in the nuclear scan department to wear masks
- D. Placing a surgical mask on the client for transport and for contact with other individuals
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to place a surgical mask on the client for transport and for contact with other individuals when a patient under airborne precautions requires movement. This helps prevent the spread of infectious agents. Planning to have the nuclear scan at the bedside (Choice A) may not be feasible or appropriate. Calling the nuclear medicine department to delay the test (Choice B) may inconvenience the client and disrupt the scheduled procedure. Asking technicians in the nuclear scan department to wear masks (Choice C) does not provide adequate protection for others who may come into contact with the client outside the department.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking digoxin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations as an indication of digoxin toxicity to report to the provider?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Vomiting
- C. Ringing in ears
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vomiting. Vomiting is a common sign of digoxin toxicity and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Diarrhea (Choice A) is a more common side effect of digoxin but not typically associated with toxicity. Ringing in the ears (Choice C) is a potential sign of toxicity; however, vomiting is a more immediate concern. Dizziness (Choice D) can occur with digoxin use but is not a specific indicator of toxicity.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has osteomyelitis and a prescription for gentamicin IV every 8 hours. Which of the following serum laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider before administering the gentamicin?
- A. Hematocrit 45%
- B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- C. Creatinine 2.4 mg/dL
- D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates potential kidney dysfunction, which is crucial when administering gentamicin as it can be nephrotoxic. Reporting a high creatinine level to the provider is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choice A (Hematocrit 45%) is within the normal range and not directly related to gentamicin administration. Choice B (Sodium 140 mEq/L) and Choice D (Potassium 4.0 mEq/L) are also within normal limits and do not directly impact the administration of gentamicin.
5. What is the nurse's priority intervention for a patient who has developed a pressure ulcer?
- A. Apply a dressing to the ulcer.
- B. Reposition the patient every 2 hours.
- C. Provide the patient with pain medication.
- D. Clean the ulcer with normal saline.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to reposition the patient every 2 hours. Repositioning helps prevent the worsening of pressure ulcers by relieving pressure on affected areas and promoting blood circulation, which aids in healing. Applying a dressing (choice A) is important but not the priority compared to repositioning. Providing pain medication (choice C) is essential for comfort but does not address the root cause of the pressure ulcer. Cleaning the ulcer with normal saline (choice D) is part of wound care but does not take precedence over repositioning to prevent further tissue damage.
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