Nursing Elites

1. A school-age child is 4 hours postoperative following perforated appendicitis repair. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Maintain the child on a clear liquid diet for 48 hours.
• B. Administer antibiotics for 7 days.
• C. Apply warm compresses to the surgical site every 4 hours.
• D. Keep the child on NPO status for 24 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering antibiotics for 7 days is essential postoperatively to prevent infections and complications in a child who underwent perforated appendicitis repair. This helps in reducing the risk of secondary infections and promoting healing. Clear liquid diets, warm compresses, and prolonged fasting are not the primary interventions indicated in this scenario.

2. A patient is 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours
• B. Monitor the patient's pain level every 8 hours
• C. Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours
• D. Keep the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia is to assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours. This frequent assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of complications such as impaired circulation or nerve damage. Monitoring every 4 hours allows for early detection of any issues, enabling timely intervention and prevention of potential complications. Monitoring the patient's pain level every 8 hours (choice B) is not as immediate or essential for postoperative care. Assisting the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours (choice C) may not be necessary if the patient is not ambulatory yet. Keeping the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows (choice D) can be beneficial but is not the priority in the immediate postoperative period compared to assessing neurovascular status.

3. A patient develops hypotension, laryngeal edema, and bronchospasm after eating peanuts. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Diphenhydramine
• D. Hydroxyzine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient is exhibiting symptoms of anaphylaxis triggered by a peanut allergy, a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. The appropriate medication for anaphylaxis is epinephrine. Epinephrine acts quickly to reverse the symptoms by constricting blood vessels, relaxing bronchial muscles, and reducing laryngeal edema, making it the drug of choice for this situation. Promethazine, diphenhydramine, and hydroxyzine are not the first-line treatments for anaphylaxis. Promethazine is an antihistamine with sedative effects, Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine, and Hydroxyzine is also an antihistamine with sedative properties. While these medications can help with mild allergic reactions, they are not as effective or fast-acting as epinephrine in treating the severe manifestations of anaphylaxis.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parent of a school-age child who has moderate persistent asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should give your child his salmeterol inhaler every 4 hours when he is having an acute episode of wheezing.
• B. You should monitor your child's weight weekly while he is receiving inhaled corticosteroid therapy.
• C. Pulmonary function tests will be performed every 12 to 24 months to evaluate how your child is responding to therapy.
• D. When using the peak expiratory flow meter, record your child's average of three readings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should inform the parent that the child will need pulmonary function tests every 12 to 24 months to assess lung function and response to treatment. These tests help evaluate the presence of lung disease, monitor disease progression, and assess the effectiveness of the current therapeutic regimen in managing asthma. Choice A is incorrect as salmeterol is not used for acute wheezing episodes but rather for long-term maintenance. Choice B is incorrect because weight monitoring is not directly related to inhaled corticosteroid therapy for asthma. Choice D is incorrect as peak expiratory flow meter readings should be recorded as instructed, not averaged.

5. A preschool-age child is admitted to the hospital with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN). Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this child?

• A. Risk for Injury related to hypertension.
• B. Altered Growth and Development related to chronic disease.
• C. Risk for Infection related to hypertension.
• D. Fluid Volume Excess related to decreased plasma filtration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a preschool-age child with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN) is 'Risk for Injury related to hypertension' due to the potential complications such as hypertensive encephalopathy. Hypertension poses an immediate threat to the child's well-being, making it crucial to address the risk for injury associated with elevated blood pressure as the top priority.

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