Nursing Elites

1. Which statement by the parents indicates understanding of the process involved with a kidney transplant for a child with renal failure?

• A. We are happy that our child will not have to take any more medicine after the transplant.
• B. We understand that our child will not be at risk anymore for catching colds from other children at school.
• C. We will be glad that we will not have to bring our child in to see the doctor again.
• D. We know it is important to ensure that our child takes prescribed medications after the transplant.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because parents should understand the importance of medication adherence post-transplant to prevent rejection. Following the prescribed medication regimen is crucial for the success of the kidney transplant and the overall health of the child. Monitoring and ensuring the child takes their medications as directed by the healthcare provider are essential components of post-transplant care. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the critical aspect of medication management post-transplant, which is vital for the child's well-being and the success of the procedure.

2. A young child admitted to the pediatric unit has fever, irritability, and vomiting with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) result should the nurse anticipate based on these data?

• A. Decreased protein count
• B. Clear, straw-colored fluid
• C. Positive for red blood cells (RBCs)
• D. Decreased glucose level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In bacterial meningitis, the glucose level in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is typically decreased due to the increased utilization of glucose by the infecting bacteria. This metabolic change leads to a decrease in CSF glucose levels, making choice D the correct answer in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bacterial meningitis usually results in an increased protein count, cloudy appearance of the CSF due to the presence of bacteria, and absence of red blood cells (RBCs) in the CSF unless there is a traumatic tap, respectively.

3. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?

• A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
• B. RR of 26 breaths/min
• C. Temp of 38°C
• D. BP of 70/50

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.

4. A patient who has PUD and is receiving magnesium hydroxide (MOM) is experiencing an increased number of BM. Which is the nurse�s priority action?

• A. Ask the HCP for a reduction in dose
• B. Encourage the patient to increase dietary fiber
• C. Administer the drug with an aluminum hydroxide antacid
• D. Instruct patient to keep an accurate stool count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: MOM is a rapid-acting antacid with a prominent adverse effect of diarrhea. To compensate, it usually is administered in combo with aluminum hydroxide which promotes constipation. A reduction in dose might be necessary if the diarrhea is severe, but this is not a priority action. Increasing dietary fiber and keeping a stool count are appropriate actions to implement after adding an antacid to counteract the diarrhea effect.

5. A patient is receiving glucocorticoids for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. The patient complains of having a headache. Which ordered medication should the nurse administer?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Acetaminophen
• C. Ibuprofen
• D. Naproxen Sodium (Aleve)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is already receiving glucocorticoids for rheumatoid arthritis and complains of a headache, it is essential to consider the potential interactions and side effects of additional medications. Aspirin and NSAIDs like ibuprofen and naproxen sodium can increase the risk of gastrointestinal irritation and ulceration when used concurrently with glucocorticoids. Acetaminophen is a safer choice in this scenario for managing the patient's headache without exacerbating the gastrointestinal issues associated with the use of glucocorticoids. Acetaminophen does not have the same gastrointestinal side effects as aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen sodium, making it the most appropriate option for headache relief in this case.

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