Nursing Elites

1. Which statement by the parents indicates understanding of the process involved with a kidney transplant for a child with renal failure?

• A. We are happy that our child will not have to take any more medicine after the transplant.
• B. We understand that our child will not be at risk anymore for catching colds from other children at school.
• C. We will be glad that we will not have to bring our child in to see the doctor again.
• D. We know it is important to ensure that our child takes prescribed medications after the transplant.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because parents should understand the importance of medication adherence post-transplant to prevent rejection. Following the prescribed medication regimen is crucial for the success of the kidney transplant and the overall health of the child. Monitoring and ensuring the child takes their medications as directed by the healthcare provider are essential components of post-transplant care. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the critical aspect of medication management post-transplant, which is vital for the child's well-being and the success of the procedure.

2. Prior to hydrotherapy treatment for wound debridement following a burn injury, which of the following actions should be taken?

• A. Apply topical antimicrobial ointment to the child's wound
• B. Place a mesh gauze dressing over the child's wound
• C. Administer an analgesic to the child
• D. Initiate prophylactic antibiotic therapy for the child

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prior to hydrotherapy for wound debridement, it is crucial to administer an analgesic to the preschooler. The procedure is known to be extremely painful, and providing analgesia or sedation is essential to manage the discomfort and pain experienced by the child during the treatment. Choice A is incorrect because applying topical antimicrobial ointment is not a pre-procedural requirement but rather a post-procedure wound care step. Choice B is incorrect as placing a mesh gauze dressing does not address the pain management aspect. Choice D is also incorrect as prophylactic antibiotic therapy is not the primary intervention needed before hydrotherapy for wound debridement.

3. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a school-age child who is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. Which of the following is the priority action by the nurse?

• A. Elevate the head of the child's bed
• B. Insert a large-bore IV catheter for the child
• C. Determine the allergen that caused the child's reaction
• D. Administer IM epinephrine to the child

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the management of anaphylaxis, the priority action for the nurse is to administer IM epinephrine to the child. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it helps reverse the severe manifestations of the reaction by constricting blood vessels, relaxing airway muscles, and decreasing hives and swelling. Elevating the head of the child's bed may be beneficial for respiratory distress but is not the priority over administering epinephrine. Inserting a large-bore IV catheter may be necessary for fluid resuscitation but is not the initial priority. Identifying the allergen is important for prevention and future management but is not the immediate action needed in the acute phase of an anaphylactic reaction.

4. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?

• A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
• B. RR of 26 breaths/min
• C. Temp of 38°C
• D. BP of 70/50

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.

5. A patient taking isotretinoin (Accutane) for acne vulgaris. Which statement indicates that the patient teaching has been effective?

• A. I should use a reliable form of birth control.
• B. I will stop taking the drug if my skin is dry.
• C. It is important to increase intake of vitamin A.
• D. I do not need to use sunblock while taking Accutane.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Isotretinoin is highly teratogenic, which means it can cause birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for patients, especially females of childbearing potential, to use effective forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while taking this medication. This is a key component of patient teaching to ensure the safe use of isotretinoin. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing isotretinoin abruptly can lead to a flare-up of acne. Choice C is incorrect because increasing vitamin A intake can be harmful due to the risk of hypervitaminosis A. Choice D is incorrect because isotretinoin makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, so sunblock is essential to prevent sunburn and skin damage.

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