Nursing Elites

1. When preparing an adolescent for a lumbar puncture, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place a cardiac monitor on the adolescent prior to the procedure
• B. Apply topical analgesic cream to the site one hour prior to the procedure
• C. Keep the adolescent in a semi-Fowler's position for 4 hours following the procedure
• D. Restrict fluids for 2 hours following the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse when preparing an adolescent for a lumbar puncture is to apply topical analgesic cream to the site one hour before the procedure. This helps reduce pain experienced during the lumbar puncture, making the procedure more comfortable for the adolescent. Placing a cardiac monitor on the adolescent is not necessary for a lumbar puncture. Keeping the adolescent in a semi-Fowler's position for 4 hours following the procedure is not a standard practice after a lumbar puncture. Restricting fluids for 2 hours following the procedure is not a requirement for a lumbar puncture preparation.

2. A preschool-age child is admitted to the hospital with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN). Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this child?

• A. Risk for Injury related to hypertension.
• B. Altered Growth and Development related to chronic disease.
• C. Risk for Infection related to hypertension.
• D. Fluid Volume Excess related to decreased plasma filtration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a preschool-age child with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN) is 'Risk for Injury related to hypertension' due to the potential complications such as hypertensive encephalopathy. Hypertension poses an immediate threat to the child's well-being, making it crucial to address the risk for injury associated with elevated blood pressure as the top priority.

3. A patient is 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours
• B. Monitor the patient's pain level every 8 hours
• C. Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours
• D. Keep the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia is to assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours. This frequent assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of complications such as impaired circulation or nerve damage. Monitoring every 4 hours allows for early detection of any issues, enabling timely intervention and prevention of potential complications. Monitoring the patient's pain level every 8 hours (choice B) is not as immediate or essential for postoperative care. Assisting the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours (choice C) may not be necessary if the patient is not ambulatory yet. Keeping the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows (choice D) can be beneficial but is not the priority in the immediate postoperative period compared to assessing neurovascular status.

4. A child with nephrotic syndrome has not experienced diuresis after a month on corticosteroids. What protocol can the nurse encourage to induce diuresis?

• A. Ibuprofen, an anti-inflammatory agent
• B. Furosemide (Lasix), a diuretic
• C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro), an antibiotic
• D. Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan), an immunosuppressant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To induce diuresis in a child with nephrotic syndrome who has not responded to corticosteroids, a diuretic like Furosemide (Lasix) is appropriate. Furosemide helps increase urine production and reduce fluid retention. Ibuprofen is an anti-inflammatory agent and does not directly induce diuresis. Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic and is not used to promote diuresis. Cyclophosphamide is an immunosuppressant, not an antisuppressant, and is not typically used to induce diuresis in nephrotic syndrome.

5. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system plays an important role in maintaining blood pressure. Which compound in this system is most powerful at raising blood pressure?

• A. Angiotensin I
• B. Angiotensin II
• C. Angiotensin III
• D. Renin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Angiotensin II is the most potent compound in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system for raising blood pressure. It acts as a powerful vasoconstrictor, leading to increased systemic vascular resistance. Angiotensin II is formed from angiotensin I through the action of the angiotensin-converting enzyme. While renin initiates the cascade by converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, it is angiotensin II that exerts the strongest pressor effect.

Similar Questions