a nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a peripheral intravenous iv catheter which of the following actions should the nu
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to prevent infection when caring for a client with a new peripheral IV catheter is to change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours. Shaving the hair at the insertion site can actually increase the risk of infection by causing microabrasions in the skin. While cleansing the site with povidone-iodine is important before insertion, it is not necessary to continue doing so once the IV is in place. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the dressing is crucial for maintaining aseptic technique but does not directly prevent infection related to the IV site itself.

2. How should a healthcare professional assess for fluid overload in a patient with heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is the most accurate way to assess fluid overload in patients with heart failure. In heart failure, the body retains excess fluid, leading to weight gain. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare professionals to track fluid retention accurately. Checking for edema (Choice B) is a valuable assessment technique, but it may not be as sensitive as monitoring daily weight. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice C) is essential in managing heart failure, but it is not the most accurate way to assess fluid overload. Checking oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important to assess respiratory status but is not directly related to fluid overload in heart failure.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A productive cough with green sputum can indicate a bacterial infection, which is a concern for clients with COPD. Reporting this finding to the provider is important for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are not as concerning in the context of COPD management. An oxygen saturation of 92% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients, pursed-lip breathing is a helpful technique for managing breathing difficulties in COPD, and an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter is a common finding in clients with COPD due to chronic air trapping.

4. What is the appropriate action when a patient experiences an allergic reaction to a medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for a severe allergic reaction as it helps to constrict blood vessels, increase heart rate, and open airways, thereby improving breathing and circulation. Discontinuing the medication may not be sufficient to manage a severe allergic reaction as the allergen is already in the patient's system. Corticosteroids and antihistamines can be considered as complementary treatments but are not the primary immediate intervention required for a severe allergic reaction.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium 140 mEq/L. An elevated sodium level can affect the effectiveness of digoxin therapy and may lead to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to report this value to the provider. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are important as well, but elevated sodium can have a more direct impact on digoxin therapy in this scenario.

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