Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

• A. Shave the hair at the insertion site.
• B. Cleanse the site with povidone-iodine.
• C. Wear sterile gloves when changing the dressing.
• D. Change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to prevent infection when caring for a client with a new peripheral IV catheter is to change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours. Shaving the hair at the insertion site can actually increase the risk of infection by causing microabrasions in the skin. While cleansing the site with povidone-iodine is important before insertion, it is not necessary to continue doing so once the IV is in place. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the dressing is crucial for maintaining aseptic technique but does not directly prevent infection related to the IV site itself.

2. A nurse is assessing a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. Which symptom should the nurse expect?

• A. Periorbital edema.
• B. Decreased frequency of urination.
• C. Enuresis.
• D. Diarrhea.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enuresis is a common symptom of urinary tract infections in school-age children. It is often a presenting symptom due to irritation of the bladder. Periorbital edema (Choice A) is more indicative of conditions like nephrotic syndrome or renal disorders. Decreased frequency of urination (Choice B) is not typically associated with urinary tract infections. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a common symptom of urinary tract infections but may occur due to other reasons like gastrointestinal infections.

3. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a severe allergic reaction?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Administer corticosteroids
• C. Administer oxygen
• D. Administer antihistamines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic reactions because it rapidly reverses the symptoms of anaphylaxis by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and relaxing airway muscles. Corticosteroids, although helpful to reduce inflammation, are not the priority in the acute management of severe allergic reactions. Oxygen may be needed to support breathing, but it is not the initial priority. Antihistamines are not as effective as epinephrine in treating severe allergic reactions and should not be the first intervention.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• C. Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
• D. Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Potassium 5.2 mEq/L.' When a client is taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic, monitoring potassium levels is crucial. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is higher than normal and can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so it should be reported. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not be of immediate concern when assessing a client taking spironolactone.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Continuous murmur.
• B. Absent peripheral pulses.
• C. Increased blood pressure.
• D. Bounding pulses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

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