ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?
- A. Shave the hair at the insertion site.
- B. Cleanse the site with povidone-iodine.
- C. Wear sterile gloves when changing the dressing.
- D. Change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action to prevent infection when caring for a client with a new peripheral IV catheter is to change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours. Shaving the hair at the insertion site can actually increase the risk of infection by causing microabrasions in the skin. While cleansing the site with povidone-iodine is important before insertion, it is not necessary to continue doing so once the IV is in place. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the dressing is crucial for maintaining aseptic technique but does not directly prevent infection related to the IV site itself.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will need to have my INR checked regularly while taking this medication.
- B. I should avoid eating leafy green vegetables while taking this medication.
- C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience nausea.
- D. I will avoid taking aspirin while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because clients taking warfarin should have their INR (International Normalized Ratio) checked regularly to monitor the medication's effectiveness and adjust the dose if needed. This monitoring helps to ensure the medication is working correctly and the client is within the therapeutic range. Choice B is incorrect because clients on warfarin should not avoid leafy green vegetables but should maintain a consistent intake. Leafy green vegetables contain vitamin K, which can affect warfarin, so it's important to maintain a consistent intake to keep INR stable. Choice C is incorrect as clients should not stop taking warfarin abruptly without consulting their healthcare provider as it can lead to serious health risks like blood clots. Choice D is incorrect because while taking warfarin, it is important to avoid unnecessary aspirin use due to an increased risk of bleeding. However, this statement does not indicate an understanding of the teaching about the need for regular INR monitoring.
3. Which lab value is critical for a patient on heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT
- B. Monitor INR
- C. Monitor platelet count
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for patients on heparin therapy as it helps determine the clotting ability of the blood. By monitoring aPTT, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage of heparin to maintain therapeutic levels and prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR is more commonly associated with warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but is not specific to heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness or safety of heparin therapy.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid eating foods that are high in fat.
- B. Monitor for black, tarry stools while taking this medication.
- C. Avoid taking this medication with grapefruit juice.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to monitor for black, tarry stools while taking clopidogrel. This is important because it helps detect gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid foods high in fat while taking clopidogrel. Choice C is incorrect as grapefruit juice interaction is not a concern with clopidogrel. Choice D is incorrect as clopidogrel can be taken with or without food.
5. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?
- A. Supine position
- B. Semi-Fowler's position
- C. Trendelenburg position
- D. Prone position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.
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