ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?
- A. Shave the hair at the insertion site.
- B. Cleanse the site with povidone-iodine.
- C. Wear sterile gloves when changing the dressing.
- D. Change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action to prevent infection when caring for a client with a new peripheral IV catheter is to change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours. Shaving the hair at the insertion site can actually increase the risk of infection by causing microabrasions in the skin. While cleansing the site with povidone-iodine is important before insertion, it is not necessary to continue doing so once the IV is in place. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the dressing is crucial for maintaining aseptic technique but does not directly prevent infection related to the IV site itself.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following resources should the nurse provide?
- A. Personal blogs about managing diabetes medications.
- B. Food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine.
- C. Diabetes medication information from the Physicians' Desk Reference.
- D. Food exchange lists for meal planning from the American Diabetes Association.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Food exchange lists are valuable resources for individuals with diabetes as they provide structured meal planning guidance. This helps individuals manage their diabetes effectively by controlling their carbohydrate intake. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because personal blogs may not provide reliable and evidence-based information, food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine may not be specific for diabetes meal planning, and diabetes medication information from the Physicians' Desk Reference is not directly related to meal planning for diabetes management.
3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
- B. This medication may cause your blood pressure to increase.
- C. This medication can cause you to retain fluids.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to take the medication with meals. This helps prevent gastrointestinal upset and improves medication tolerance. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, so avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as furosemide typically lowers blood pressure. Option C is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss rather than retention.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Apply a dry dressing.
- B. Cleanse the wound with normal saline.
- C. Perform debridement as needed.
- D. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. For a stage 2 pressure injury, maintaining a moist environment is crucial for healing. Hydrocolloid dressings help achieve this by promoting autolytic debridement and creating a barrier against bacteria while allowing the wound to heal. Applying a dry dressing (Choice A) may not provide the necessary moisture for healing. Cleansing the wound with normal saline (Choice B) is essential, but a hydrocolloid dressing is more specific for promoting healing in this case. Performing debridement as needed (Choice C) is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, as they involve partial-thickness skin loss without slough or eschar.
5. A healthcare provider is assisting with mass casualty triage following an explosion at a local factory. Which of the following clients should the healthcare provider identify as the priority?
- A. A client who has massive head trauma
- B. A client who has full-thickness burns to the face and trunk
- C. A client with indications of hypovolemic shock
- D. A client with an open fracture of the lower extremity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a mass casualty situation, a client with hypovolemic shock should be the priority as they require immediate intervention to restore fluid volume and prevent further deterioration. Hypovolemic shock can lead to organ failure and death if not addressed promptly. While clients with other severe conditions like massive head trauma, full-thickness burns, or an open fracture also need urgent care, hypovolemic shock directly threatens the client's life due to inadequate circulating blood volume. Therefore, stabilizing the client with indications of hypovolemic shock takes precedence over others in this scenario.
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