Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis. Which action should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Withhold all medications until after dialysis.
• B. Rehydrate with dextrose 5% in water for orthostatic hypotension.
• C. Check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis.
• D. Give an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client receiving hemodialysis is to check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis. This is crucial as it helps in detecting and addressing any bleeding complications that may arise from the dialysis procedure. Choice A is incorrect because medications should not be withheld unless specified by the healthcare provider. Choice B is incorrect as dextrose 5% in water is not typically used for orthostatic hypotension. Choice D is incorrect as giving an antibiotic before dialysis is not a routine practice unless specifically prescribed for a particular reason.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube and notes continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Continue to monitor the client.
• B. Clamp the chest tube.
• C. Replace the drainage system.
• D. Apply a dressing over the insertion site.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when continuous bubbling is noted in the water seal chamber of a chest tube is to apply a dressing over the insertion site. Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak, and applying a dressing helps manage this issue by providing a seal. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the drainage system is not appropriate in this situation as it can lead to complications such as tension pneumothorax or inadequate drainage of the pleural space.

3. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor calcium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing acute mania. What intervention should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
• B. Withdraw TV privileges if the client does not attend group therapy.
• C. Place the client in seclusion during periods of anxiety.
• D. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods. During acute mania, individuals often experience high levels of energy, decreased need for sleep, and increased activity levels. Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods can help prevent exhaustion and promote better self-regulation. Choice B is incorrect because withdrawing TV privileges may not be directly related to managing acute mania. Choice C is incorrect as placing the client in seclusion can exacerbate feelings of anxiety and agitation. Choice D is incorrect as spending time in the day room may not address the need for rest and relaxation that is crucial during acute mania.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.

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