a nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider a nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber can indicate an air leak, which compromises the integrity of the chest tube system and should be reported to the provider for immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is an expected finding indicating that the system is working appropriately. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation of fluid level with inspiration and expiration, indicating that the system is functioning correctly. Drainage of 75 mL in the first 24 hours is within the expected range for chest tube drainage and does not require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

2. What is a condition where the lung's air sacs (alveoli) are damaged and enlarged, leading to breathlessness?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Emphysema is the correct answer. It is a condition where the air sacs in the lungs are damaged and enlarged, leading to breathlessness. Chronic bronchitis is characterized by inflammation of the bronchial tubes, not the alveoli. Asthma involves airway inflammation and constriction, not alveolar damage. Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition where lung tissue becomes thickened and scarred, different from the alveolar damage seen in emphysema.

3. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed furosemide is to take the medication in the morning. Furosemide, a diuretic, is best taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, which is excessive urination at night. Taking it earlier in the day can help reduce disruptions to sleep patterns. Therefore, advising the client to take furosemide in the morning is crucial for optimal therapeutic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, and does not mandate limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority assessment for a client receiving an IV bolus of Morphine is the respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, which is a serious adverse effect. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise early and intervene promptly. Assessing pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are also important but not the priority in this situation. Pain level can be assessed after ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable. Blood pressure and level of consciousness should be monitored but do not take precedence over the respiratory rate when administering Morphine.

5. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a key outcome in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with fluid volume excess may not necessarily void a minimum of 30 mL per hour, have elastic skin turgor, or have a specific serum creatinine level. The absence of adventitious breath sounds is a more direct indicator of managing fluid volume excess.

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