Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has Cushing's disease. The nurse should expect an increase in which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Serum glucose level
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Serum calcium level
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's disease, there is increased cortisol production, leading to elevated blood glucose levels. This occurs due to the role of cortisol in promoting gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Cushing's disease is not typically associated with alterations in serum potassium, calcium, or sodium levels.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Blurred vision.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating a potential overdose. It is crucial to recognize this symptom promptly and report it to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. Bradycardia and nausea are common side effects of digoxin but not specific indicators of toxicity. Tachycardia is unlikely in digoxin toxicity since it usually causes a decrease in heart rate.

3. Which lab value is essential for a patient receiving warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor sodium levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the INR (International Normalized Ratio) for a patient receiving warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial to assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing blood clots while minimizing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B), potassium levels (choice C), or platelet count (choice D) is not specifically essential for patients on warfarin therapy and does not provide direct information on the drug's anticoagulant effects.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Take this medication 1 hour before meals.
• C. Avoid potassium supplements while taking this medication.
• D. You may experience a persistent, dry cough while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Captopril is known to cause a persistent, dry cough as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential side effect is crucial for their awareness. Choices A and B are incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so potassium supplements may be necessary in some cases.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Hypothermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea. When caring for a client with pneumonia, the nurse should expect tachypnea, which is rapid breathing. This occurs due to decreased oxygenation and lung function. Bradycardia (A) is not typically associated with pneumonia; instead, tachycardia may be present. Hypertension (B) is not a common manifestation of pneumonia; instead, hypotension may occur due to sepsis. Hypothermia (D) is not a typical finding in pneumonia; fever or an elevated temperature is more common.

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