ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan?
- A. Encourage a high-protein diet
- B. Increase the client's fluid intake
- C. Administer diuretics
- D. Weigh the client twice a week
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering diuretics is a crucial intervention for a client with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis as it helps reduce edema by increasing urine output and managing symptoms of glomerulonephritis. Encouraging a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended in this case because it can put additional stress on the kidneys. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may worsen edema in these clients. Weighing the client twice a week (Choice D) is important for monitoring fluid balance but is not as immediate and directly beneficial as administering diuretics.
2. A patient is receiving discharge instructions for GERD. Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take my medication with orange juice.
- B. Having a bedtime snack will prevent heartburn.
- C. I will lie down after meals.
- D. I will limit activities that require bending at the waist.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Patients with GERD should avoid activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as bending at the waist, as this can lead to reflux. Choice A is incorrect because medications for GERD are usually taken with water, not citrus juices. Choice B is incorrect as having a bedtime snack can worsen GERD symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because lying down after meals can also exacerbate reflux due to the effects of gravity.
3. What is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?
- A. Synchronized cardioversion
- B. Defibrillation
- C. Pacing
- D. Medication administration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Synchronized cardioversion. In ventricular tachycardia with a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred electrical intervention. Synchronized cardioversion is used to treat tachyarrhythmias where there is a pulse present. Defibrillation (choice B) is used in emergencies for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (choice C) is more suitable for bradycardias or certain conduction abnormalities. Medication administration (choice D) may be used in stable cases or as an adjunct to other treatments, but synchronized cardioversion is the primary intervention for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
4. What are the expected ECG changes in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. ST elevation
- C. Wide QRS complex
- D. Tall T waves
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are the most common ECG change seen in patients with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia leads to a decrease in serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. This results in T wave flattening or inversion. ST elevation is typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Wide QRS complex is more associated with hyperkalemia than hypokalemia. Tall T waves are often seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.
5. What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?
- A. An air leak
- B. Drainage in the chest tube
- C. A blocked chest tube
- D. Normal chest tube function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak. This signifies that air is escaping from the patient's pleural space into the chest tube system rather than being evacuated properly. An air leak can lead to lung collapse or pneumothorax and requires immediate attention. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because continuous bubbling does not indicate normal chest tube function, drainage in the chest tube, or a blocked chest tube.
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