Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan?

• A. Encourage a high-protein diet
• B. Increase the client's fluid intake
• C. Administer diuretics
• D. Weigh the client twice a week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering diuretics is a crucial intervention for a client with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis as it helps reduce edema by increasing urine output and managing symptoms of glomerulonephritis. Encouraging a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended in this case because it can put additional stress on the kidneys. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may worsen edema in these clients. Weighing the client twice a week (Choice D) is important for monitoring fluid balance but is not as immediate and directly beneficial as administering diuretics.

2. What is the priority action if a patient experiences hypoglycemia after an insulin dose?

• A. Check the patient's blood glucose level
• B. Administer IV dextrose
• C. Document the incident
• D. Continue monitoring the patient

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action when a patient experiences hypoglycemia after an insulin dose is to check the patient's blood glucose level. This is crucial to confirm hypoglycemia before initiating any treatment. While administering IV dextrose may be necessary if the patient's blood glucose level is critically low, confirming hypoglycemia is essential to guide appropriate interventions. Documenting the incident is important for documentation purposes but is not the immediate priority when the patient's safety is at risk. Continuing to monitor the patient is essential, but it should follow the confirmation and initial management of hypoglycemia.

3. What symptoms are expected in a patient with compartment syndrome?

• A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
• B. Localized swelling and numbness
• C. Fever and infection
• D. Weakness and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with compartment syndrome, the key symptoms include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms indicate reduced circulation in the affected compartment. Choice B is incorrect as localized swelling and numbness are not typically associated with compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as fever and infection are not primary symptoms of compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as weakness and fatigue are not typically seen in compartment syndrome.

4. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Elevated ST segments
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.

5. What lab value should be prioritized for a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Serum albumin levels
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 should be prioritized for a patient with HIV. This value is crucial as it indicates severe immunocompromise in HIV-infected individuals. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count helps assess the status of the immune system and guides treatment decisions. Serum albumin levels (choice B) may reflect the patient's nutritional status and overall health but are not as specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice C) and hemoglobin levels (choice D) can be affected by various factors and are not as directly linked to HIV management as the CD4 T-cell count in this context.

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