ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. When educating a patient about sildenafil (Viagra), which adverse effect should be a priority for the patient to report to his prescriber?
- A. Flushing
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Hearing loss
- D. Dyspepsia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Hearing loss.' In rare cases, Viagra has been associated with sudden hearing loss, typically in one ear, which can be partial or complete. Any onset of hearing problems while using Viagra should be reported promptly to the prescriber. It is recommended to discontinue the medication if it is used for erectile dysfunction. 'Flushing,' 'Diarrhea,' and 'Dyspepsia' are known adverse effects of Viagra but are generally less serious compared to hearing loss.
2. A newborn diagnosed with an omphalocele defect is admitted to the intensive care nursery. Which nursing action is appropriate based on the current data?
- A. Placing the newborn on a radiant warmer
- B. Placing the newborn in an open crib
- C. Preparing the newborn for phototherapy
- D. Preparing the newborn for bottle-feeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing the newborn on a radiant warmer is appropriate as it helps maintain the body temperature and prevent hypothermia in a newborn with an omphalocele defect. This is crucial for the infant's well-being and supports their physiological stability.
3. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient prescribed verapamil SR 120mg PO daily for HTN. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the medication?
- A. �I will take the medication with grapefruit juice each morning.�
- B. �I should expect occasional loose stools from this medication�
- C. �I�ll need to reduce the amount of fiber in my diet�
- D. �I must swallow the pill whole.�
Correct answer: D
Rationale: �SR� indicates that the drug is sustained release; therefore, the patient must swallow the pill intact, without chewing or crushing, which would result in a bolus effect. Grapefruit juice should be avoided, because it can inhibit intestinal and hepatic metabolism of the drug, thereby raising the drug level. Constipation, not loose stools, is a common side effect. Increasing fluids and dietary fiber can help prevent this adverse effect.
4. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system plays an important role in maintaining blood pressure. Which compound in this system is most powerful at raising blood pressure?
- A. Angiotensin I
- B. Angiotensin II
- C. Angiotensin III
- D. Renin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Angiotensin II is the most potent compound in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system for raising blood pressure. It acts as a powerful vasoconstrictor, leading to increased systemic vascular resistance. Angiotensin II is formed from angiotensin I through the action of the angiotensin-converting enzyme. While renin initiates the cascade by converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, it is angiotensin II that exerts the strongest pressor effect.
5. The nurse plans to closely monitor for which clinical manifestation after administering furosemide (Lasix)?
- A. Decrease pulse
- B. Decrease temperature
- C. Decrease BP
- D. Decrease respiratory rate.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: High-ceiling diuretics, such as furosemide, are the most effective diuretic agents. They produce more loss of fluid and electrolytes than any others. A sudden loss of fluid can result in decreased BP. When BP drops, the pulse will probably increase rather than decrease.
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