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1. A nurse is developing a program about strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses for a community group. The nurse should plan to include which of the following recommendations? (Select one that does not apply).
- A. Keep cold food temperatures below 4.4�C (40�F).
- B. Reheat leftovers before eating.
- C. Wash raw vegetables thoroughly in clean water.
- D. Keep cooked foods at 48.9�C (120�F).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to keep cooked foods at 48.9�C (120�F). This temperature is too low to keep cooked foods safe from bacterial growth. The ideal temperature to keep cooked foods safe is above 60�C (140�F). Choices A, B, and C are all important strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses. Keeping cold food temperatures below 4.4�C (40�F) helps prevent bacterial growth, reheating leftovers before eating kills any bacteria that may have grown during storage, and washing raw vegetables thoroughly in clean water helps remove dirt and bacteria.
2. Which of the following foods should be avoided by patients experiencing xerostomia, except one? Which is the exception?
- A. Saltines
- B. Salsa
- C. Alcohol
- D. Dill pickles
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Dill pickles. Unlike the other choices, which can exacerbate xerostomia due to their dry or irritating nature, dill pickles, being tart and sour, can actually help stimulate saliva flow, which is beneficial for patients with xerostomia. Saltines, salsa, and alcohol are all known to contribute to dry mouth and should generally be avoided by individuals experiencing xerostomia.
3. Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?
- A. To check for unusual discharges from the breast
- B. To check for any obvious malignancy
- C. To observe the size and contour of the breast
- D. To check for thickness and lumps in the breast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.
4. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is associated with which vitamin deficiency?
- A. Thiamine (B1)
- B. Riboflavin (B2)
- C. Niacin (B3)
- D. Pyridoxine (B6)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is indeed associated with thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. This syndrome is commonly seen in individuals with chronic alcoholism due to poor diet and impaired thiamine absorption. Thiamine is essential for normal brain function and energy metabolism. Riboflavin (B2) deficiency can lead to symptoms like sore throat and swollen mucous membranes, not Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. Niacin (B3) deficiency causes pellagra, characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, and death, but not Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. Pyridoxine (B6) deficiency can result in dermatitis, glossitis, and peripheral neuropathy, but it is not associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.
5. Which of the following conditions is not caused by energy drinks?
- A. Nervousness
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Seizures
- D. Dental caries
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Energy drinks are known for causing a variety of health issues, including nervousness, seizures, and an increased risk of dental caries due to their high sugar content. However, they do not cause bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. Instead, energy drinks are associated with causing an increased or rapid heart rate, known as tachycardia. Therefore, out of the listed options, bradycardia is the condition not caused by energy drinks.
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