Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to measure a client's level of oxygen saturation and observes edema of both hands and thickened toenails. The nurse should apply the pulse oximeter probe to which of the following locations?

• A. Finger
• B. Earlobe
• C. Toe
• D. Skin fold

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has edema of both hands and thickened toenails, these conditions can impede accurate readings from the finger and toe locations. The earlobe is the best alternative site for the pulse oximeter probe in this scenario. Placing the probe on the earlobe will help ensure a more accurate measurement of oxygen saturation despite the issues with the hands and toenails. Therefore, the correct answer is to apply the pulse oximeter probe to the earlobe. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because of the potential limitations presented by the edema and thickened toenails.

2. A client in her first trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about over-the-counter medications that belong to pregnancy risk category B. Which of the following medications should the nurse include?

• A. Naproxen
• B. Aspirin
• C. Ibuprofen
• D. Acetaminophen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the correct choice as it belongs to pregnancy risk category B, making it considered safe during pregnancy. Naproxen, Aspirin, and Ibuprofen are not recommended during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester, as they are classified in higher-risk categories which may be harmful to the developing fetus.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for cimetidine. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider identify as the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. WBC count 9,000/mm3
• C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 50 units/L
• D. Fasting glucose 105 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated AST level is indicative of liver damage, which is the priority finding to report to the provider when administering cimetidine. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of liver toxicity or damage. Monitoring liver function is crucial when using cimetidine, as it can sometimes lead to hepatotoxicity. The other laboratory findings are within normal ranges and not directly associated with cimetidine administration.

4. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Cough
• B. Tremor
• C. Constipation
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Bradycardia is a known adverse effect of atenolol, a beta-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. Atenolol can slow down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia, such as dizziness, fatigue, or fainting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cough, tremor, and constipation are not typically associated with atenolol use.

5. Which of the following is a critical nursing action when managing a patient with a chest tube?

• A. Keep the chest tube clamped at all times.
• B. Ensure the chest tube is connected to a closed drainage system.
• C. Empty the chest tube drainage system every 2 hours.
• D. Disconnect the chest tube when the patient is ambulating.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Ensure the chest tube is connected to a closed drainage system." This is a critical nursing action when managing a patient with a chest tube because it is essential for proper drainage and to prevent complications such as air leaks or infections. Option A is incorrect because keeping the chest tube clamped at all times would prevent proper drainage and could lead to complications. Option C is incorrect as emptying the chest tube drainage system should be done based on assessment findings rather than a fixed time interval. Option D is incorrect because disconnecting the chest tube when the patient is ambulating can lead to complications like a pneumothorax.

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