Nursing Elites

1. A patient is at risk for impaired skin integrity. What is the priority intervention for the nurse?

• A. Turn and reposition the patient every 2 hours.
• B. Apply a moisture barrier to the patient's skin.
• C. Massage the patient's skin to promote circulation.
• D. Apply a heating pad to the patient's skin to increase blood flow.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to turn and reposition the patient every 2 hours. This intervention is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers and maintaining skin integrity by relieving pressure on bony prominences. Applying a moisture barrier (Choice B) is important for moisture-associated skin damage but is not the priority in this case. Massaging the patient's skin (Choice C) can potentially cause friction and shear, increasing the risk of skin breakdown. Applying a heating pad (Choice D) can lead to burns or thermal injuries, exacerbating skin integrity issues.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Improvement in visual acuity
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Weight loss of 1.36 kg (3 lb) in 24 hours
• D. Increased urinary output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output is the desired outcome when administering furosemide to a client with heart failure. Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes the excretion of excess fluids from the body, which helps in reducing fluid overload, a common symptom of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the action of furosemide in treating heart failure. Visual acuity improvement, decreased respiratory rate, and rapid weight loss are not typical indicators of furosemide effectiveness in managing heart failure.

3. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report on a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who has urolithiasis and reports severe ankle pain extending toward the abdomen
• B. A client who has acute cholecystitis and reports abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder
• C. A client who has had a total knee arthroplasty, is 1 day postoperative, and reports a pain level of 8 on a 0 to 10 pain scale
• D. A client who has a fractured femur and reports sudden sharp chest pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with a fractured femur and sudden chest pain may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is incorrect because although severe pain is present, it is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues related to urolithiasis rather than a life-threatening condition. Choice B, related to acute cholecystitis, is less urgent than choice D as the pain radiating to the right shoulder is a common symptom but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Choice C, regarding a client post-total knee arthroplasty with a pain level of 8, is important but not as urgent as a potential pulmonary embolism in choice D.

4. The patient has the nursing diagnosis of Impaired physical mobility related to pain in the left shoulder. Which priority action will the nurse take?

• A. Assist the patient with comfort measures.
• B. Keep the patient as mobile as possible.
• C. Encourage the patient to perform ROM.
• D. Encourage the patient to do self-care.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Assist the patient with comfort measures.' When a patient is experiencing impaired physical mobility due to pain, the priority action is to provide comfort measures to help manage the pain. By addressing the pain, the patient may then feel more comfortable moving and engaging in mobility exercises. Option B, 'Keep the patient as mobile as possible,' could exacerbate the pain and should not be the initial action. While encouraging range of motion (ROM) exercises (Option C) and self-care (Option D) are important aspects of care, addressing pain and comfort should take precedence in this scenario.

5. A nurse is assessing a client following a head injury and a brief loss of consciousness. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 12
• B. Edematous bruise on the forehead
• C. Small drops of clear fluid in the left ear
• D. Pupils are 4 mm and reactive to light

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clear fluid draining from the ear may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which is a serious complication following a head injury. Reporting this finding is crucial as it may require immediate medical intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as concerning as a CSF leak. A GCS score of 12 is relatively high, indicating a mild level of consciousness alteration. An edematous bruise on the forehead is a common physical finding after a head injury. Pupils that are 4 mm and reactive to light suggest normal pupillary function.

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