ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. Which of the following foods is a good source of protein?
- A. Chicken
- B. Tofu
- C. Cheddar cheese
- D. Almonds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is indeed a good source of protein, providing a significant amount per serving. While chicken and tofu are also high in protein, cheddar cheese can be a beneficial source, especially for individuals looking for non-meat options. Almonds, while nutritious, are not as high in protein compared to the other options listed.
2. A healthcare provider prescribes a higher-than-usual dose of medication. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer the medication and monitor closely.
- B. Hold the medication and consult the pharmacist.
- C. Ask another nurse to verify the dose.
- D. Call the provider for clarification.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to call the provider for clarification. When faced with a higher-than-usual dose of medication, the nurse's first action should be to contact the prescribing healthcare provider to confirm the dosage. Administering the medication without clarifying the dose with the provider can pose serious risks to the patient's safety. Holding the medication and consulting the pharmacist may be appropriate after contacting the provider for clarification. Asking another nurse to verify the dose is not the most appropriate action when dealing with an unusual prescription; direct communication with the provider is essential in such situations.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 2
- B. 3
- C. 4
- D. 5
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, divide the total dose by the dose per mL. In this case, 40 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 4 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose. Choice A, 2 mL, is incorrect because it would only deliver 20 mg of furosemide, which is half the required dose. Choices B and D are also incorrect as they do not provide the accurate amount needed to achieve the 40 mg dosage.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer the initial dose of ceftriaxone to a client who has endometritis. Which of the following statements by the client should cause the healthcare professional to hold the medication and consult the provider?
- A. I have a severe allergy to amoxicillin
- B. I get sick when I take diuretics
- C. I have a history of hearing problems
- D. I take prednisone for my asthma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A severe allergy to amoxicillin could indicate a potential cross-reactivity with ceftriaxone, so the medication should be held. Cross-reactivity between penicillins (like amoxicillin) and cephalosporins (like ceftriaxone) is a known concern due to their similar chemical structures. Choices B, C, and D do not directly contraindicate the administration of ceftriaxone for endometritis.
5. A nurse is preparing to measure a client's level of oxygen saturation and observes edema of both hands and thickened toenails. The nurse should apply the pulse oximeter probe to which of the following locations?
- A. Finger
- B. Earlobe
- C. Toe
- D. Skin fold
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client has edema of both hands and thickened toenails, these conditions can impede accurate readings from the finger and toe locations. The earlobe is the best alternative site for the pulse oximeter probe in this scenario. Placing the probe on the earlobe will help ensure a more accurate measurement of oxygen saturation despite the issues with the hands and toenails. Therefore, the correct answer is to apply the pulse oximeter probe to the earlobe. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because of the potential limitations presented by the edema and thickened toenails.
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