a nurse is caring for a patient experiencing delayed wound healing what intervention should the nurse take

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What intervention should the nurse take for a patient experiencing delayed wound healing?

A. Monitor serum albumin levels
B. Apply a dry dressing
C. Administer antibiotics
D. Change the wound dressing every 8 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial for patients with delayed wound healing. Low albumin levels indicate a lack of protein, which can impair the healing process and increase the risk of infection. By monitoring serum albumin levels, the nurse can assess the patient's nutritional status and make necessary interventions to promote wound healing. Applying a dry dressing (Choice B) may be appropriate depending on the wound characteristics, but it does not address the underlying cause of delayed healing. Administering antibiotics (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for delayed wound healing unless there is an active infection present. Changing the wound dressing every 8 hours (Choice D) may lead to excessive disruption of the wound bed and hinder the healing process.

2. A patient diagnosed with hypokalemia is at risk for which condition?

A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
B. Muscle weakness
C. Seizures
D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients diagnosed with hypokalemia are at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias due to low potassium levels. Hypokalemia can lead to abnormalities in the electrical conduction system of the heart, potentially causing irregular heart rhythms. Muscle weakness (Choice B) is a symptom commonly associated with hypokalemia, but the question asks about conditions the patient is at risk for, not specific symptoms. Seizures (Choice C) are not typically associated with hypokalemia; they are more commonly linked with conditions such as epilepsy. Bradycardia (Choice D) refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a typical risk associated with hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly observed in patients with low potassium levels.

3. What is the priority action for a patient experiencing chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?

A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Administer aspirin
C. Obtain IV access
D. Check cardiac enzymes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This medication helps to dilate the blood vessels, reduce the workload on the heart, and improve blood flow to the heart muscle, providing immediate relief for chest pain in acute coronary syndrome. Administering aspirin is also crucial in the early management of acute coronary syndrome to prevent further clot formation. However, in terms of immediate symptom relief, nitroglycerin takes precedence over aspirin. Obtaining IV access is important for administering medications and fluids but is not the priority over providing immediate relief for chest pain. Checking cardiac enzymes is essential for diagnosing acute coronary syndrome but is not the immediate priority when a patient is experiencing chest pain.

4. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Hemoglobin levels
C. Serum albumin levels
D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. In a patient with HIV, monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and risk of opportunistic infections. Hemoglobin levels (choice B) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect the immune status in HIV patients. Serum albumin levels (choice C) are indicators of nutritional status and inflammation, not specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) may fluctuate due to various conditions and is not as specific as the CD4 T-cell count in assessing HIV progression.

5. What is a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG?

A. Flattened T waves
B. ST elevation
C. Prominent U waves
D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. When potassium levels are low, it can lead to changes in the ECG, such as T wave flattening. This alteration is important to recognize as it indicates potential electrolyte imbalances. ST elevation (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Widened QRS complex (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like hyperkalemia.