ATI RN
ATI Mental Health
1. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects shouldn't the nurse monitor for?
- A. Tardive dyskinesia
- B. Decreased need for sleep
- C. Orthostatic hypotension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Decreased need for sleep.' While antipsychotic medications can cause side effects like tardive dyskinesia, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia, a decreased need for sleep is not a common side effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for the known side effects of antipsychotic medications to ensure early detection and appropriate management.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a bronchoscopy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 95%
- B. Blood pressure of 130/85 mm Hg
- C. Coughing up small amounts of sputum
- D. Absent gag reflex
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An absent gag reflex is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent aspiration. This can lead to the aspiration of oral or gastric contents into the lungs, potentially causing serious respiratory complications. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the normal range, a blood pressure of 130/85 mm Hg is also within normal limits, and coughing up small amounts of sputum is an expected finding after a bronchoscopy procedure.
3. What type of therapy delivers high concentrations of oxygen to the lungs?
- A. Oxygen therapy
- B. Ventilator therapy
- C. Mechanical ventilation
- D. CPAP therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Oxygen therapy is the correct answer because it specifically refers to a treatment that delivers high concentrations of oxygen to the lungs. This therapy is used for patients who require additional oxygen due to conditions affecting their breathing. Ventilator therapy (B), mechanical ventilation (C), and CPAP therapy (D) involve different mechanisms and purposes than delivering high concentrations of oxygen to the lungs.
4. A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). How should the nurse respond when the patient asks what causes pernicious anemia? A decrease in ______ is the most likely cause.
- A. Ferritin
- B. Gastric enzymes
- C. Intrinsic factor
- D. Erythropoietin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by a decrease in intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is a protein produced by the stomach that is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the intestines. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed properly, leading to anemia. Ferritin is a protein that stores iron in the body and is not directly related to pernicious anemia. Gastric enzymes play a role in digestion but are not the primary cause of pernicious anemia. Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production and is not linked to pernicious anemia.
5. A client has a new prescription for Atorvastatin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- C. Take this medication in the morning.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.' Grapefruit juice can increase the blood levels of Atorvastatin by inhibiting its metabolism in the body, leading to a higher risk of adverse effects, such as muscle pain and liver damage. Therefore, it is important for the client to avoid consuming grapefruit juice while taking Atorvastatin. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Atorvastatin can be taken with or without food, at any time of the day, and there is no specific need to increase potassium-rich foods while on this medication.
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