ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. What is the most effective intervention for a patient experiencing acute pain?
- A. Administer analgesics
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Provide non-pharmacological interventions
- D. Administer IV fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering analgesics is the most effective intervention for a patient experiencing acute pain as it directly targets the pain receptors and provides relief. Repositioning the patient may help in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for managing acute pain. Non-pharmacological interventions can be beneficial as adjuncts to pain management but might not provide immediate relief. Administering IV fluids is not a standard intervention for acute pain unless dehydration is contributing to the pain.
2. Which term describes the absence of regular health check-ups?
- A. Health deficit
- B. Health threats
- C. Health problem
- D. Foreseeable crisis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A health deficit refers to the lack or absence of something essential for maintaining good health, in this case, regular health check-ups. Not undergoing regular health check-ups can lead to undiagnosed health issues and prevent timely interventions, resulting in a health deficit.
3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional monitor?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum sodium
- C. Serum calcium
- D. Serum magnesium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing the excretion of potassium in the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare professional should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are on Lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril primarily affects potassium levels due to its mechanism of action as an ACE inhibitor. Serum sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by Lisinopril in the same way as potassium.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an autologous blood product to a client. Which of the following actions should the professional take to identify the client?
- A. Match the client's blood type with the type and cross-match specimens
- B. Confirm the provider's prescription matches the number on the blood component
- C. Ask the client to state their blood type and the date of their last blood donation
- D. Ensure that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit
Correct answer: Match the client's blood type with the type and cross-match specimens
Rationale: When preparing to administer an autologous blood product, it is crucial to correctly identify the client to prevent errors. Matching the client's blood type with the type and cross-match specimens ensures that the blood product is intended for the correct recipient. This step helps in verifying the patient's identity and avoiding any transfusion-related complications. Confirming the blood type through type and cross-matching is a standard practice to ensure patient safety during blood transfusions.
5. A patient is prescribed Lisinopril as part of the treatment plan for heart failure. Which finding indicates the patient is experiencing the therapeutic effect of this drug?
- A. Weight gain of 5 pounds in 1 week
- B. Potassium level of 3.5mEq/L
- C. Crackles in the lungs are no longer heard
- D. Jugular vein distention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, promotes venous dilation, which helps reduce pulmonary congestion and peripheral edema. The absence of previously heard crackles in the lungs indicates effectiveness in reducing pulmonary congestion. Edema and jugular vein distention are signs of heart failure and would not indicate the therapeutic effect of Lisinopril. A potassium level of 3.5mEq/L is within the normal range and not directly related to the therapeutic effect of Lisinopril.
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