ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should be identified as a contraindication to this medication?
- A. Asthma
- B. Diabetes mellitus
- C. Hypertension
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with asthma. Asthma is a contraindication due to the potential for worsening bronchoconstriction and exacerbating respiratory symptoms. Choice B, diabetes mellitus, is not a contraindication for Propranolol. Choice C, hypertension, is actually an indication for Propranolol as it is commonly used to treat hypertension. Choice D, glaucoma, is not a contraindication for Propranolol use.
2. The physician orders a platelet count to be performed on Mrs. Smith after breakfast. The nurse is responsible for:
- A. Instructing the patient about this diagnostic test
- B. Writing the order for this test
- C. Giving the patient breakfast
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's responsibility in this scenario is to instruct the patient about the diagnostic test ordered by the physician. This includes explaining the purpose of the test, any necessary preparations, and what to expect. The nurse is not responsible for writing the order, as this is the physician's role. Additionally, providing breakfast is not directly related to the platelet count test. Therefore, the correct answer is A, which aligns with the nurse's role in educating and supporting the patient regarding the test.
3. What is extinction and how might it be used in treating a disorder?
- A. Extinction strengthens the conditioned response by continuously pairing the conditioned stimulus with the unconditioned stimulus.
- B. Extinction is the process of eliminating a conditioned response by repeatedly presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus.
- C. Extinction is ineffective and is not used in treating disorders.
- D. Extinction is the process of intensifying the conditioned response by pairing the conditioned stimulus with a stronger unconditioned stimulus.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Extinction is the process of eliminating a conditioned response by repeatedly presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus. This helps in reducing or eliminating undesired behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because extinction does not strengthen the conditioned response but weakens it. Choice C is also incorrect as extinction is a valid technique used in treating disorders by reducing unwanted behaviors. Choice D is incorrect as extinction does not involve intensifying the conditioned response but rather diminishing it.
4. While in an induced coma for 3 weeks, a badly burned firefighter awakens and thanks his son for singing Happy Birthday to him a week earlier. Which part of the brain is responsible for allowing him to hear and comprehend while comatose?
- A. Cerebellum
- B. Thalamus
- C. Temporal lobe
- D. Occipital lobe
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The temporal lobe is responsible for processing auditory information, allowing the patient to hear and comprehend while in a coma. The cerebellum is primarily associated with coordination and balance, not auditory processing. The thalamus serves as a relay station for sensory information but is not specifically responsible for auditory processing. The occipital lobe is mainly involved in processing visual information, not auditory functions.
5. A nurse in the medical-surgical unit has a newly admitted patient who is oliguric; the acute care nurse practitioner orders a fluid challenge of 100 to 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes. The nurse is aware this intervention will help:
- A. Distinguish hyponatremia from hypernatremia
- B. Evaluate pituitary gland function
- C. Distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function
- D. Provide an effective treatment for hypertension-induced oliguria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering a fluid challenge in oliguric patients helps to distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function. This intervention aids in determining whether the oliguria is due to reduced renal blood flow (such as in fluid volume deficit or prerenal azotemia) or decreased renal function (such as in acute tubular necrosis). The response to this challenge can indicate the underlying cause. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the purpose of a fluid challenge in oliguric patients.
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