Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare worker is caring for a group of clients in an infectious disease unit. The worker should wear an OSHA-approved N95 respirator mask when caring for a client with which of the following infectious diseases?

• A. Pertussis
• B. Mycoplasma pneumonia
• C. Tuberculosis
• D. Respiratory syncytial virus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An OSHA-approved N95 respirator mask is recommended when caring for a client with tuberculosis due to the airborne transmission of the disease. Tuberculosis poses a higher risk of transmission via respiratory droplets, making respiratory protection essential to prevent exposure and infection among healthcare workers.

2. A client has developed atelectasis postoperatively. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Increasing dyspnea
• C. Decreasing respiratory rate
• D. Friction rub

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atelectasis is a condition where the alveoli in the lungs collapse, leading to impaired gas exchange. As a result, the client may experience increasing dyspnea (difficulty breathing) due to the decreased lung capacity for oxygen exchange. Facial flushing, decreasing respiratory rate, and friction rub are not typically associated with atelectasis.

3. While assessing a client with a tracheostomy, a nurse notes that the tracheostomy tube is pulsing with the heartbeat during a pulse check. No other abnormal findings are noted. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Notify the operating room of a potential emergency case.
• B. No action is required at this time; this pulsation can be a normal finding in some clients.
• C. Remove the tracheostomy tube and ventilate the client using a bag-valve-mask.
• D. Stay with the client and ask someone else to contact the provider immediately.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The pulsation of the tracheostomy tube with the heartbeat may indicate a tracheoinnominate artery fistula, which can lead to life-threatening hemorrhage if the artery is breached. In this scenario, as there is no active bleeding yet, the nurse should remain with the client and have another person notify the provider immediately. If the client starts to hemorrhage, the nurse should remove the tracheostomy tube and apply pressure at the bleeding site, preparing the client for urgent surgical intervention.

4. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

5. A client with acute respiratory failure (ARF) is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations of this condition?

• A. Severe dyspnea
• B. Nausea
• C. Decreased level of consciousness
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute respiratory failure, the body is not getting enough oxygen, leading to hypoxia. Symptoms of hypoxia include severe dyspnea (A), decreased level of consciousness (C), and headache (D) due to inadequate oxygen supply to the brain. Nausea (B) is not a typical manifestation of acute respiratory failure and is not directly related to the lack of oxygen in the body. Therefore, the nurse should not monitor the client for nausea as a direct consequence of ARF.

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