ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about foot care by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Soak your feet in warm water daily.
- B. Wear shoes that are one size larger than your normal size.
- C. Wear cotton socks to keep your feet dry.
- D. Trim your toenails straight across.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Trim your toenails straight across." This instruction is essential to prevent ingrown toenails in clients with diabetes. Soaking feet in warm water daily (choice A) may increase the risk of skin breakdown and infection. Wearing shoes one size larger than normal (choice B) can lead to friction and cause blisters. While wearing cotton socks (choice C) is generally recommended, the emphasis should be on moisture-wicking materials rather than just cotton.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should be included?
- A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
- B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
- C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
- D. Avoid serving the client raw vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action to include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding episodes. Encouraging the client to floss daily (choice A) is important for oral hygiene but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (choice B) is more relevant for clients with neutropenia to reduce the risk of infection. Avoiding serving the client raw vegetables (choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems but is not specifically related to thrombocytopenia.
3. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 80/min.
- B. Weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours.
- C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
- D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or fluid imbalance, which should be reported. This rapid weight loss could be a sign of excessive diuresis, potentially leading to hypovolemia or electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring weight changes is crucial in clients with heart failure receiving diuretics. The other findings are within normal ranges and expected in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure. A heart rate of 80/min, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr are generally acceptable in this scenario.
4. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?
- A. Chlamydia
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Herpes simplex virus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. It is a sexually transmitted infection that is nationally notifiable, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to the state health department. This is crucial for disease surveillance, monitoring, and implementing public health interventions. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.
5. A client with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings should be positioned in which way?
- A. Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water before feedings.
- B. Place the client in a supine position during feedings.
- C. Position the client with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.
- D. Check gastric residuals every 8 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Positioning the client with the head of the bed elevated at 45 degrees is crucial during enteral feedings to prevent aspiration. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of feedings into the lungs. Option A is not necessary before feedings. Placing the client in a supine position (Option B) increases the risk of aspiration. Checking gastric residuals every 8 hours (Option D) is important but not directly related to positioning during enteral feedings.
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