ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?
- A. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial.
- B. History of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- C. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
- D. Receiving a feeding in a supine position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.
2. Which structure serves as the major chemoreceptor of the heart?
- A. Carotid body
- B. Aortic body
- C. Vagus nerve
- D. SA node
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, the carotid body. The carotid body is the major chemoreceptor of the heart responsible for detecting changes in blood oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH levels. This specialized structure helps regulate the cardiovascular system's response to maintain appropriate oxygen levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly involved in chemoreception in the heart. The aortic body is primarily involved in blood pressure regulation, the vagus nerve is a cranial nerve responsible for parasympathetic innervation, and the SA node is known as the heart's natural pacemaker.
3. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
- A. The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
- B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today
- C. Both heparin and Coumadin work together to dissolve the clots.
- D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the Coumadin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.
Correct answer: The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.
4. What interventions should be implemented to maintain the skin integrity of a preterm infant born at 30 weeks?
- A. Avoid cleaning the skin
- B. Bathe the infant with sterile water
- C. Cleanse the skin with a gentle alkaline-based soap and water
- D. Thoroughly rinse the skin with plain water after bathing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention to maintain the skin integrity of a preterm infant born at 30 weeks is to bathe the infant with sterile water. Bathing with sterile water or a neutral pH solution is recommended to protect the delicate skin of preterm infants, which is more permeable and prone to damage. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as avoiding cleaning the skin may lead to hygiene issues, cleansing with alkaline-based soap can be harsh on the delicate skin, and thoroughly rinsing with plain water after bathing may not be as gentle and protective for preterm infants.
5. A healthcare provider in a clinic is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for Digoxin toxicity?
- A. Calcium 9.2 mg/dL
- B. Calcium 10.3 mg/dL
- C. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L
- D. Potassium 4.8 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Potassium 3.4 mEq/L is below the expected reference range, which increases the risk for digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can lead to fatal dysrhythmias, particularly in older clients taking Digoxin. Hypokalemia potentiates the effects of Digoxin, making the heart more sensitive to its toxic effects. Monitoring and correcting electrolyte imbalances, especially low potassium levels, are crucial to prevent adverse effects of digoxin therapy. Calcium levels do not directly influence digoxin toxicity, so choices A and B are incorrect. High potassium levels, as in choice D, are less likely to increase the risk of digoxin toxicity compared to low potassium levels.
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