a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration what should the nurse identify as a risk fact
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.

2. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with confusion post-surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with confusion post-surgery because it helps alleviate confusion caused by potential hypoxia. In a post-surgical setting, confusion can be a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the blood due to various reasons such as respiratory depression, decreased lung function, or other complications. Administering oxygen can quickly address hypoxia, improving oxygenation to the brain and reducing confusion. Repositioning the patient, administering IV fluids, or performing a neurological assessment are not the primary interventions for confusion related to hypoxia post-surgery.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Start the transfusion with 0.9% sodium chloride. 0.9% sodium chloride is the only IV solution that is compatible with blood products and should be used to prime the tubing before a transfusion. Choice A is incorrect because vital signs should be monitored more frequently, typically every 15 minutes at the beginning of the transfusion. Choice C is incorrect as blood transfusions are usually administered over 2-4 hours, not 6 hours. Choice D is incorrect as the first 500 mL of blood should be infused slowly over 1-2 hours to monitor for any adverse reactions.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a sodium level of 125 mEq/L (hyponatremia), the nurse should administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV to help increase sodium levels. Choice B, administering a hypotonic IV solution, would further decrease the sodium level. Choice C, encouraging oral fluid intake, is contraindicated as it can dilute the sodium concentration further. Choice D, restricting oral fluid intake, could worsen the client's condition by leading to dehydration and further electrolyte imbalances.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The client's platelet count is 25,000/mm3. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with a low platelet count are at risk of bleeding and infection. Monitoring the client's temperature every 4 hours is crucial to detect early signs of infection, as they may not be able to mount a typical immune response due to their compromised platelet count. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in clients with low platelet counts as it can further increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and checking for stool in a colostomy bag (choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority in a client with low platelet count.

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