Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?

• A. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial.
• B. History of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• C. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
• D. Receiving a feeding in a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Calf tenderness.
• B. Shortness of breath.
• C. Elevated blood pressure.
• D. Respiratory rate of 18/min.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical finding that can indicate a pulmonary embolism, a severe complication of DVT. This symptom suggests a potential life-threatening situation and requires immediate intervention. Calf tenderness, while common in DVT, is not as urgent as shortness of breath. Elevated blood pressure and a respiratory rate of 18/min are important to assess but are not typically as indicative of a serious complication like a pulmonary embolism.

3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Canned soup.
• B. Lean cuts of beef.
• C. Bananas.
• D. Baked chicken.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Canned soup. Canned soups are usually high in sodium, which can increase blood pressure and should be avoided by clients with hypertension. Lean cuts of beef, bananas, and baked chicken are healthier options for individuals with hypertension as they are lower in sodium and can be included in a balanced diet to manage blood pressure levels.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which finding should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?

• A. Heart rate 58/min.
• B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dL.
• C. Hgb 14 g/dL.
• D. WBC count 2,900/mm3.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: a low WBC count. Clozapine can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition, known as agranulocytosis, increases the risk of severe infections. Monitoring WBC counts is essential during clozapine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not contraindications for administering clozapine.

5. A client with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings should be positioned in which way?

• A. Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water before feedings.
• B. Place the client in a supine position during feedings.
• C. Position the client with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.
• D. Check gastric residuals every 8 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positioning the client with the head of the bed elevated at 45 degrees is crucial during enteral feedings to prevent aspiration. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of feedings into the lungs. Option A is not necessary before feedings. Placing the client in a supine position (Option B) increases the risk of aspiration. Checking gastric residuals every 8 hours (Option D) is important but not directly related to positioning during enteral feedings.

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