ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?
- A. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial.
- B. History of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- C. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
- D. Receiving a feeding in a supine position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.
2. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 80/min.
- B. Weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours.
- C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
- D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or fluid imbalance, which should be reported. This rapid weight loss could be a sign of excessive diuresis, potentially leading to hypovolemia or electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring weight changes is crucial in clients with heart failure receiving diuretics. The other findings are within normal ranges and expected in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure. A heart rate of 80/min, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr are generally acceptable in this scenario.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube in place. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed 45 degrees during feedings.
- B. Place the client in the left lateral position for 30 minutes after feedings.
- C. Flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding.
- D. Check gastric residuals every 8 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action to prevent aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings. This positioning helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Placing the client in the left lateral position after feedings does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the tube with sterile water before each feeding is important for tube patency but does not specifically prevent aspiration. Checking gastric residuals every 8 hours is necessary to monitor the client's tolerance to feedings but is not a direct preventive measure against aspiration.
4. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?
- A. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface.
- B. Open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body.
- C. Place the sterile dressing within 1.25 cm of the edge of the sterile field.
- D. Set up the sterile field 5 cm below waist level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When setting up a sterile field for a dressing change, the nurse should open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body. This action helps maintain the sterility of the field by minimizing the risk of contamination. Option A is incorrect because the cap from the solution should be placed sterile side down to prevent contamination. Option C is incorrect because the sterile dressing should be placed at least 1.25 cm away from the edge of the sterile field to maintain its sterility. Option D is incorrect because the sterile field should be set up above waist level to prevent potential contamination from reaching the field.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hr postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 88/min
- B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
- C. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
- D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A low urine output of 20 mL/hr, less than the expected 30 mL/hr or more, could indicate renal impairment or inadequate fluid status postoperatively. In this scenario, early detection and intervention are crucial to prevent further complications. The other findings - heart rate of 88/min, pain rating of 4, and blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg - are within normal limits for a client 2 hr postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair and do not raise immediate concerns.
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