Nursing Elites

1. A client with Raynaud's disease is being cared for by a nurse. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Maintain a warm temperature in the client's room.
• B. Administer epinephrine for acute episodes.
• C. Provide information about stress management.
• D. Give glucocorticoid steroid twice a day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Stress can trigger Raynaud's episodes, so managing stress can help reduce the frequency and severity of the condition. Maintaining a warm temperature in the client's room (Choice A) is important to prevent vasoconstriction and worsening of symptoms. Administering epinephrine (Choice B) is not a standard treatment for Raynaud's disease. Giving glucocorticoid steroids (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for Raynaud's disease and is not typically prescribed for this condition.

2. A client at 10 weeks of gestation with a history of UTIs is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should drink 240 ml (8 oz) of water before and after intercourse.
• B. You should avoid drinking orange juice because it increases the risk of infection.
• C. You should empty your bladder after intercourse to help prevent infection.
• D. You should take a hot bath to help prevent infection.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include is to advise the client to empty their bladder after intercourse to help prevent UTIs. Emptying the bladder after intercourse helps reduce the risk of UTIs by flushing bacteria from the urethra. Choice A is incorrect as drinking water before and after intercourse is not specifically related to preventing UTIs. Choice B is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between orange juice consumption and UTI risk. Choice D is incorrect as taking a hot bath can actually increase the risk of UTIs by promoting bacterial growth.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Jugular vein distention.
• D. Dependent edema.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jugular vein distention is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure due to fluid overload in the pulmonary circulation. This occurs because the heart's left side is unable to pump effectively, causing increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and leading to blood backing up into the pulmonary circulation. Peripheral edema (choice A) and dependent edema (choice D) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure where blood pools in the systemic circulation, causing swelling in the extremities. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically a direct consequence of left-sided heart failure; instead, tachycardia is more commonly seen as the heart compensates for its reduced efficiency.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare professional review before administering the medication?

• A. Potassium
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Sodium
• D. Hemoglobin A1C

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: The healthcare professional should review serum creatinine levels before administering metformin to assess kidney function. Metformin is excreted by the kidneys, and checking serum creatinine helps prevent lactic acidosis, a potential side effect in individuals with impaired renal function. Choice A: Potassium levels are not directly related to the administration of metformin. While monitoring potassium levels is important for some medications, it is not the priority when initiating metformin. Choice C: Sodium levels are not typically assessed specifically before starting metformin. It is not a routine lab test required prior to metformin administration. Choice D: Hemoglobin A1C reflects long-term blood sugar control and is not a lab test that needs to be reviewed before initiating metformin. It is used to monitor diabetes management over time, not for immediate medication administration considerations.

5. A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level.
• B. A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr.
• C. A client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag.
• D. A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client with low blood glucose levels needs immediate assessment to ensure stabilization. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening situations that require urgent assessment. Option B can be attended to after addressing the client with low blood glucose levels. Option C can be managed based on the infusion rate and the client's condition. Option D, although important, can be assessed after ensuring the client with low blood glucose levels is stable.

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