ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with Raynaud's disease is being cared for by a nurse. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Maintain a warm temperature in the client's room.
- B. Administer epinephrine for acute episodes.
- C. Provide information about stress management.
- D. Give glucocorticoid steroid twice a day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Stress can trigger Raynaud's episodes, so managing stress can help reduce the frequency and severity of the condition. Maintaining a warm temperature in the client's room (Choice A) is important to prevent vasoconstriction and worsening of symptoms. Administering epinephrine (Choice B) is not a standard treatment for Raynaud's disease. Giving glucocorticoid steroids (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for Raynaud's disease and is not typically prescribed for this condition.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Hair loss
- C. Nausea
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect of radiation therapy due to damage to the salivary glands. It is essential for the nurse to monitor for this condition as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort. Fatigue (choice A) is a common side effect of radiation therapy, but in this case, dry mouth is a more specific side effect to monitor for. Hair loss (choice B) is more commonly associated with chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. Nausea (choice C) is also a common side effect of radiation therapy, but dry mouth is a more direct effect of the treatment that the nurse should focus on monitoring.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be decreased?
- A. Bilirubin.
- B. Albumin.
- C. Ammonia.
- D. Prothrombin time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, albumin levels are typically decreased due to impaired liver function. Bilirubin levels are often increased in cirrhosis due to the liver's inability to process bilirubin efficiently. Ammonia levels may be elevated in cirrhosis due to impaired ammonia metabolism by the liver. Prothrombin time is usually prolonged in cirrhosis because the liver's ability to synthesize clotting factors is impaired.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will need to have my INR checked regularly while taking this medication.
- B. I should avoid eating leafy green vegetables while taking this medication.
- C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience nausea.
- D. I will avoid taking aspirin while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because clients taking warfarin should have their INR (International Normalized Ratio) checked regularly to monitor the medication's effectiveness and adjust the dose if needed. This monitoring helps to ensure the medication is working correctly and the client is within the therapeutic range. Choice B is incorrect because clients on warfarin should not avoid leafy green vegetables but should maintain a consistent intake. Leafy green vegetables contain vitamin K, which can affect warfarin, so it's important to maintain a consistent intake to keep INR stable. Choice C is incorrect as clients should not stop taking warfarin abruptly without consulting their healthcare provider as it can lead to serious health risks like blood clots. Choice D is incorrect because while taking warfarin, it is important to avoid unnecessary aspirin use due to an increased risk of bleeding. However, this statement does not indicate an understanding of the teaching about the need for regular INR monitoring.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent postoperative complications?
- A. Instruct the client to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises.
- B. Have the client wear sequential compression devices (SCDs).
- C. Place the client in a supine position with the head of the bed flat.
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate every 2 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have the client wear sequential compression devices (SCDs). Following a cholecystectomy, the client is at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE) due to reduced mobility and surgical stress. SCDs help prevent VTE by promoting venous return and reducing the risk of blood clots. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While deep breathing and coughing exercises are essential postoperatively, SCDs take precedence in preventing VTE. Placing the client in a supine position with the head of the bed flat can increase the risk of respiratory complications. Encouraging ambulation is important, but SCDs are a higher priority in this situation to prevent VTE.
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