ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum glucose.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum calcium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has Crohn's disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Bloody stools.
- C. Urinary retention.
- D. Abdominal distention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bloody stools. Bloody stools are a common symptom of Crohn's disease, characterized by inflammation of the digestive tract. Weight gain (choice A) is less likely due to malabsorption issues associated with Crohn's disease. Urinary retention (choice C) is not directly related to Crohn's disease. Abdominal distention (choice D) may occur in Crohn's disease but is not as specific a finding as bloody stools.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The nurse should identify that which of the following client reports is an indication of hypocalcemia?
- A. Constipation
- B. Frequent urination
- C. Numbness and tingling of the fingers
- D. Increased thirst
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Numbness and tingling of the fingers.' Post-thyroidectomy, hypocalcemia is a concern due to potential damage to the parathyroid glands that regulate calcium levels. Numbness and tingling of the fingers are classic signs of hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice A) is not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Frequent urination (Choice B) is more indicative of conditions like diabetes or a urinary tract infection. Increased thirst (Choice D) is commonly seen in conditions such as diabetes insipidus or uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, not specifically related to hypocalcemia.
4. A client with acute diverticulitis should have which intervention included in the care plan?
- A. Administer a cleansing enema.
- B. Initiate a low-fiber diet.
- C. Apply moist heat to the abdomen.
- D. Provide a clear liquid diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute diverticulitis is to initiate a low-fiber diet. A low-fiber diet helps manage acute diverticulitis by reducing irritation to the colon, allowing it to heal. Administering a cleansing enema (Choice A) can worsen diverticulitis by increasing pressure within the colon. Applying moist heat to the abdomen (Choice C) may provide comfort but does not address the underlying cause. Providing a clear liquid diet (Choice D) is not ideal for diverticulitis management as it lacks the necessary nutrients for healing and may not provide enough bulk to prevent further irritation.
5. A client is 2 days postoperative following a hip replacement surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 88/min
- B. Redness and warmth in the calf
- C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
- D. Heart rate of 96/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Redness and warmth in the calf can indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication following hip replacement surgery. It is crucial to report this finding promptly for further evaluation and intervention. The other options, heart rates of 88/min and 96/min, are within normal limits for an adult and may not require immediate reporting. A urine output of 30 mL/hr is concerning for decreased kidney perfusion, but the priority in this case is the potential DVT due to its severe implications.
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