ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum glucose.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum calcium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Increased muscle strength.
- C. Diarrhea.
- D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness is a common manifestation, leading to decreased deep tendon reflexes. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with myasthenia gravis. Increased muscle strength (choice B) is unlikely as muscle weakness is a hallmark of this condition. Diarrhea (choice C) is not a typical finding in myasthenia gravis.
3. Which laboratory test is essential for monitoring renal function in a patient with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Monitor BUN and creatinine levels
- B. Check blood glucose levels
- C. Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
- D. Monitor liver enzymes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) and creatinine levels in a patient with chronic kidney disease. These tests provide crucial information about renal function. Checking blood glucose levels (Choice B) is important for monitoring diabetes, not renal function. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels (Choice C) helps assess anemia, not specifically renal function. Monitoring liver enzymes (Choice D) is relevant for assessing liver function, not renal function.
4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Apples.
- B. White bread.
- C. Bananas.
- D. Grapes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples, white bread, and grapes do not have high potassium levels and are generally acceptable for clients with chronic kidney disease unless they have other specific dietary restrictions.
5. What is the best initial nursing intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer anticoagulants
- C. Reposition the patient
- D. Check oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best initial nursing intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism because it helps address hypoxia, a common complication of this condition. Oxygen therapy can improve oxygenation and support vital organ function. Administering anticoagulants (Choice B) is a treatment option for confirmed pulmonary embolism but not the initial intervention. Repositioning the patient (Choice C) and checking oxygen saturation (Choice D) are important assessments but do not address the immediate need to improve oxygenation in a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access