ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum glucose.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum calcium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.
2. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Administer bronchodilators
- D. Provide chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing action for a patient with respiratory distress is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy is crucial in improving oxygenation levels and relieving respiratory distress, making it the top priority intervention. Repositioning the patient, administering bronchodilators, or providing chest physiotherapy may be necessary interventions depending on the underlying cause, but ensuring adequate oxygen supply should take precedence in addressing respiratory distress.
3. What is the best way to manage a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Administer anticoagulants
- B. Apply compression stockings
- C. Encourage ambulation
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer anticoagulants. Administering anticoagulants is crucial in managing patients with suspected DVT as it helps prevent further clot formation and reduces the risk of complications like pulmonary embolism. Choice B, applying compression stockings, is more focused on preventing DVT in high-risk patients rather than managing an established case. Encouraging ambulation, choice C, is beneficial in the prevention of DVT but is not the primary management for suspected cases. Monitoring oxygen saturation, choice D, is important in overall patient care but is not the primary intervention for suspected DVT.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Stay in bed for at least 1 hour if unable to fall asleep.
- B. Take a 1-hour nap during the day.
- C. Perform exercise before bed.
- D. Eat a light snack before bedtime.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to eat a light snack before bedtime. Consuming a light snack can help promote sleep by preventing discomfort from hunger. Choice A is incorrect because staying in bed for too long when unable to fall asleep can lead to frustration and worsen insomnia. Choice B is incorrect as taking a nap during the day can interfere with nighttime sleep. Choice C is incorrect as exercising before bed can increase alertness and make falling asleep more difficult.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report?
- A. Chest pain
- B. Muscle spasms
- C. Cool, moist skin
- D. Incisional pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy, chest pain is a critical finding that should be reported immediately. Chest pain can indicate serious complications such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism, which require prompt intervention. Muscle spasms and cool, moist skin are not typical signs of immediate concern following an arterial thrombectomy. Incisional pain is expected postoperatively and may not warrant immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
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