ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum glucose.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum calcium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.
2. A nurse is assessing a school-age child who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Periorbital edema.
- B. Decreased frequency of urination.
- C. Enuresis.
- D. Diarrhea.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Enuresis is the correct finding to expect in a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. Enuresis, or involuntary urination, is a common symptom of UTIs in children. Periorbital edema (Choice A) is not typically associated with UTIs. Decreased frequency of urination (Choice B) is less likely in UTIs as there is often an increased urge to urinate. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a common symptom of UTIs and is more indicative of gastrointestinal issues.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Hypertension
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hypokalemia, as potassium is essential for proper muscle function. Diarrhea (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Hypertension (choice C) is not typically a direct result of low potassium levels. Bradycardia (choice D) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The client's platelet count is 25,000/mm3. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer aspirin for discomfort
- B. Check the client's temperature every 4 hr
- C. Monitor the client's urine output
- D. Check for stool in the client's colostomy bag every 2 hr
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with a low platelet count are at risk of bleeding and infection. Monitoring the client's temperature every 4 hours is crucial to detect early signs of infection, as they may not be able to mount a typical immune response due to their compromised platelet count. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in clients with low platelet counts as it can further increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and checking for stool in a colostomy bag (choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority in a client with low platelet count.
5. A client, 12 hours postpartum, reports not having a bowel movement for 4 days. Which medication should the nurse administer?
- A. Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository.
- B. Magnesium hydroxide 30 ml PO.
- C. Famotidine 20 mg PO.
- D. Loperamide 4 mg PO.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository. The client's report of not having a bowel movement for 4 days indicates constipation, and Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that helps initiate bowel movements. Magnesium hydroxide is an antacid and osmotic laxative used for indigestion, not for constipation. Famotidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used to reduce stomach acid production and treat heartburn, not constipation. Loperamide is an antidiarrheal agent and would be contraindicated in a client experiencing constipation.
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