ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is experiencing a seizure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Place a tongue depressor in the client's mouth
- B. Loosen tight clothing around the client
- C. Restrain the client's arms and legs
- D. Administer 100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a seizure, it is essential to loosen tight clothing around the client to prevent injury and promote adequate ventilation. Placing any objects, like a tongue depressor, in the client's mouth can lead to airway obstruction or injury. Restraining the client's arms and legs can exacerbate the situation by increasing muscle rigidity and potentially causing injury. Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is not typically indicated during a seizure unless respiratory distress is present.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. Respiratory rate of 24/min
- B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3
- C. SpO2 of 95%
- D. Clear breath sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.
3. A client is prescribed furosemide and needs to consume potassium-rich foods. Which of the following foods should the client be advised to include in the diet?
- A. Grapes.
- B. Apples.
- C. Bananas.
- D. Rice.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bananas. Bananas are rich in potassium and should be included in the diet of clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic. Grapes, apples, and rice are not as high in potassium as bananas and would not be as effective in replenishing potassium levels in clients taking furosemide.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a hypophysectomy for the removal of a pituitary tumor. Which of the following findings requires further assessment by the nurse?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15
- B. Blood drainage on the initial dressing measuring 3 cm
- C. Report of dry mouth
- D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake could indicate diabetes insipidus, a complication following hypophysectomy. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst due to inadequate levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Options A, B, and C are all expected findings in the immediate postoperative period following a hypophysectomy. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness, blood drainage on the initial dressing is a common finding after surgery, and dry mouth can be a side effect of anesthesia and surgical procedures.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr.
- B. Heart rate of 88/min.
- C. Wound drainage of 25 mL in 24 hours.
- D. Abdominal distention and rigidity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Abdominal distention and rigidity may indicate a postoperative complication, such as bowel obstruction or peritonitis, and should be reported to the provider. While monitoring urine output, heart rate, and wound drainage are essential postoperative assessments, they are not as concerning as abdominal distention and rigidity, which could signal a more urgent issue requiring immediate attention.
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