ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is experiencing a seizure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Place a tongue depressor in the client's mouth
- B. Loosen tight clothing around the client
- C. Restrain the client's arms and legs
- D. Administer 100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a seizure, it is essential to loosen tight clothing around the client to prevent injury and promote adequate ventilation. Placing any objects, like a tongue depressor, in the client's mouth can lead to airway obstruction or injury. Restraining the client's arms and legs can exacerbate the situation by increasing muscle rigidity and potentially causing injury. Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is not typically indicated during a seizure unless respiratory distress is present.
2. A client with a history of angina reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
- B. Administer 2L of oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Administer aspirin 325 mg orally.
- D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a history of angina experiencing chest pain radiating to the left arm, obtaining a 12-lead ECG is the priority action to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG helps in diagnosing and evaluating the extent of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Administering nitroglycerin, oxygen, or aspirin can follow once the ECG has been performed to confirm the diagnosis and guide further interventions. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is often appropriate for angina but should not precede the ECG in this urgent scenario. Oxygen therapy and aspirin administration are important interventions but obtaining the ECG takes precedence in assessing for acute cardiac events.
3. How should a healthcare professional handle a patient who is refusing to take a prescribed medication?
- A. Immediately give the medication
- B. Assess the reasons for refusal
- C. Document refusal
- D. Explore alternative treatment options
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the reasons for refusal is crucial as it allows the healthcare professional to understand the patient's concerns, which can range from fear of side effects to cost issues. By identifying the underlying reasons, the healthcare professional can tailor their approach to address these specific concerns, potentially improving medication adherence. Giving the medication immediately (Choice A) without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to further non-compliance. While documenting refusal (Choice C) is important for legal and tracking purposes, it does not directly address the patient's concerns. Exploring alternative treatment options (Choice D) may be considered after understanding the reasons for refusal, but it is not the initial step in managing medication refusal.
4. A client who has a prescription for insulin glargine is talking to a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will mix this insulin with my regular insulin before injecting it.
- B. I will store this insulin in the refrigerator after opening it.
- C. I will take this insulin twice a day.
- D. I will inject this insulin when my blood glucose is above 200 mg/dL.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because insulin glargine should be stored in the refrigerator after opening to maintain its potency. Choice A is incorrect as insulin glargine should not be mixed with other insulins. Choice C is incorrect because insulin glargine is typically taken once a day. Choice D is incorrect because insulin glargine is usually taken regardless of blood glucose levels.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access