Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating a pregnant client for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for this disorder?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Vaginal discharge
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Joint pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Preeclampsia is characterized by elevated blood pressure, proteinuria, and sometimes edema. Hypertension is a key sign of preeclampsia, and if present, further evaluation and monitoring are necessary to prevent complications for both the mother and the fetus.

2. A client at 11 weeks of gestation reports slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past 2 weeks. Following an examination, the provider informs the client that the fetus has died, indicating a:

• A. Incomplete miscarriage
• B. Missed miscarriage
• C. Inevitable miscarriage
• D. Complete miscarriage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A missed miscarriage, also known as a silent or delayed miscarriage, occurs when the embryo or fetus has died, but no bleeding or contractions have occurred to expel it from the uterus. In this scenario, the client's experiencing slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past two weeks indicates a missed miscarriage as the fetus has died, but the body has not recognized the loss or expelled the products of conception.

3. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

4. A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

• A. A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain
• B. A client who has preeclampsia with a BP of 138/90 mm Hg
• C. A client who experienced a vaginal birth 24 hours ago and reports no bleeding
• D. A client who is scheduled for discharge following a laparoscopic tubal ligation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain first. Pain assessment and management are crucial post-cesarean birth to ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Immediate attention is needed to address the client's pain and provide appropriate interventions. The other clients may require attention but do not have an immediate postoperative concern like pain following a cesarean birth.

5. A client at 22 weeks of gestation with uncontrolled gestational diabetes mellitus may require medication. Which of the following medications would the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Acarbose
• B. Repaglinide
• C. Glyburide
• D. Glipizide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Glyburide is commonly prescribed for gestational diabetes mellitus when diet and exercise are insufficient to control blood sugar levels. It is considered safe and effective during pregnancy, making it a suitable choice for managing diabetes in pregnant individuals. Acarbose, Repaglinide, and Glipizide are not typically recommended for use in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

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