Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating a pregnant client for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for this disorder?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Vaginal discharge
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Joint pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Preeclampsia is characterized by elevated blood pressure, proteinuria, and sometimes edema. Hypertension is a key sign of preeclampsia, and if present, further evaluation and monitoring are necessary to prevent complications for both the mother and the fetus.

2. A client with preterm labor is being admitted. The nurse anticipates a prescription by the provider for which of the following medications?

• A. Prostaglandin E2
• B. Indomethacin
• C. Methylergonovine
• D. Oxytocin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Indomethacin is used to delay premature labor by inhibiting uterine contractions. Prostaglandin E2, Methylergonovine, and Oxytocin are not typically used to manage preterm labor. Prostaglandin E2 can be used for cervical ripening and labor induction. Methylergonovine is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin is used for labor induction and augmentation of labor in term pregnancies.

3. When caring for a newborn with macrosomia born to a mother with diabetes mellitus, which newborn complication should the nurse prioritize care for?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hypomagnesemia
• C. Hyperbilirubinemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In newborns of diabetic mothers with macrosomia, hypoglycemia is the priority focus of care due to the risk of developing low blood sugar levels after birth. Infants born to diabetic mothers are at risk of hypoglycemia because they have been exposed to high glucose levels in utero and produce high levels of insulin. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious complications if not promptly identified and managed, making it crucial for nurses to closely monitor blood glucose levels and provide necessary interventions to prevent adverse outcomes.

4. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate IV at 2 g/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that it is safe to continue the infusion?

• A. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes
• B. Respiratory rate of 16/min
• C. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours
• D. Heart rate of 56/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 16/min within the normal range is an essential parameter to monitor when administering magnesium sulfate, as respiratory depression is a potential adverse effect. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity, warranting immediate intervention. A urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is below the expected amount, suggesting decreased kidney perfusion, which can be exacerbated by magnesium sulfate. A heart rate of 56/min is bradycardic and may indicate magnesium toxicity, requiring assessment and possible discontinuation of the infusion.

5. A client who is 4 hours postpartum following a vaginal delivery is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. Saturated perineal pad in 30 minutes
• B. Deep tendon reflexes 4+
• C. Fundus at the level of the umbilicus
• D. Approximated edges of episiotomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client who is 4 hours postpartum, a saturated perineal pad within 30 minutes is a priority finding as it may indicate excessive postpartum bleeding (hemorrhage), which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as hypovolemic shock. Deep tendon reflexes being 4+ is within normal limits postpartum. The fundus at the level of the umbilicus is an expected finding at this time frame, indicating proper involution of the uterus. Approximated edges of an episiotomy suggest proper healing.

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