ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A client is 2 hours postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Place the client in a supine position
- B. Administer morphine for pain relief
- C. Apply a warm compress to the incision site
- D. Place a pillow under the client's knees
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering morphine for pain relief is crucial for postoperative clients following a cholecystectomy to manage pain effectively. Placing the client in a supine position may not be ideal as it can cause discomfort and hinder breathing. Applying a warm compress to the incision site can increase the risk of infection. Placing a pillow under the client's knees is not a priority intervention compared to pain management.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client with chronic heart failure. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?
- A. Follow a 3g sodium diet.
- B. Drink at least 3 liters of fluid per day.
- C. Place the client's lower extremities on two pillows.
- D. Maintain the client's oxygen saturation at 89%.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Follow a 3g sodium diet. For clients with chronic heart failure, limiting sodium intake is crucial to prevent fluid retention and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. High sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup, causing the heart to work harder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking excessive fluid can worsen fluid retention in heart failure, elevating the workload of the heart. Placing the client's lower extremities on two pillows is a positioning intervention to alleviate edema, not a dietary recommendation. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 89% is more related to respiratory status rather than dietary management of chronic heart failure.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on loop diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Loop diuretics can cause potassium depletion leading to hypokalemia, which is particularly concerning as it can result in cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with loop diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less common in patients on loop diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is not a typical electrolyte imbalance associated with loop diuretics.
4. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?
- A. Supine position
- B. Semi-Fowler's position
- C. Trendelenburg position
- D. Prone position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's laboratory results. Which of the following values is a contraindication to the administration of heparin?
- A. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
- B. Platelet count 50,000/mm³
- C. White blood cell count 6,000/mm³
- D. INR 2.5
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count 50,000/mm³. A platelet count of 50,000/mm³ increases the risk of bleeding, making heparin contraindicated. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and a low count can lead to excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications to heparin administration. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL is within the normal range, white blood cell count of 6,000/mm³ is also normal, and an INR of 2.5 is within the therapeutic range for patients receiving heparin therapy.
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