ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
- B. Respiratory rate of 16/min.
- C. Heart rate of 90/min.
- D. WBC count of 15,000/mm3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm3 is elevated, which may indicate infection, a common concern postoperatively. An elevated WBC count suggests the body is fighting an infection, and prompt reporting to the provider is essential for further evaluation and treatment. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the immediate postoperative period, respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range, and a heart rate of 90/min is also within an acceptable range postoperatively. Therefore, these findings do not raise immediate concerns that necessitate reporting to the provider.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. I should avoid lifting objects heavier than 5 pounds for 1 week.
- B. I can resume my usual activities after 2 weeks.
- C. I should expect to have pain in my right shoulder.
- D. I should follow a low-protein diet for 1 week.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pain in the right shoulder after a cholecystectomy is common due to residual gas from the procedure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. It is important to avoid heavy lifting for a longer period than just 1 week to prevent complications. Resuming usual activities after 2 weeks may not be appropriate depending on the individual's recovery. Following a low-protein diet is not a standard recommendation post-cholecystectomy.
3. A nurse is administering medications to a group of clients. Which of the following occurrences requires the completion of an incident report?
- A. A client receives his antibiotics 2 hours late.
- B. A client vomits within 20 minutes of taking his morning medications.
- C. A client requests his statin to be administered at 2100.
- D. A client asks for pain medication 1 hour early.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client receives antibiotics 2 hours late, it constitutes a medication error, requiring the completion of an incident report. Choice B, a client vomiting within 20 minutes of taking medications, does not necessarily require an incident report unless it is suspected to be related to a medication error. Choice C, a client requesting a statin at a specific time, and choice D, a client asking for pain medication an hour early, are not incidents that mandate the completion of an incident report unless there are specific circumstances indicating otherwise.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Grilled chicken.
- B. Fresh fruit.
- C. White bread.
- D. Cheddar cheese.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.
5. A client receiving intermittent enteral feedings is being cared for by a nurse. Which action should the nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?
- A. Administer the feeding over 60 minutes.
- B. Position the client in a supine position during feedings.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
- D. Flush the feeding tube with 60 mL of water before each feeding.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action to reduce the risk of aspiration during enteral feedings is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps prevent the reflux of feeding into the lungs. Administering the feeding over 60 minutes (Choice A) does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Positioning the client in a supine position (Choice B) increases the risk of aspiration as it promotes reflux. Flushing the feeding tube with water (Choice D) is important for tube patency but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration.
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