Nursing Elites

1. A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?

• A. It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.
• B. A pharmacist is the person to answer that question.
• C. Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.
• D. The oral medication you will take after this IV will dissolve the clot.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.

2. A client has anemia and a new prescription for ferrous sulfate liquid. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach to decrease gastrointestinal irritation.
• B. Take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption.
• C. Take the medication with milk.
• D. Rinse the mouth before taking the iron.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Taking ferrous sulfate with orange juice can help increase the absorption of iron. Orange juice contains vitamin C, which aids in the absorption of iron from the medication. This combination can enhance the effectiveness of the iron supplement for a client with anemia. Option A is incorrect because taking iron on an empty stomach can cause gastrointestinal upset. Option C is incorrect because calcium in milk can inhibit iron absorption. Option D is irrelevant to enhancing iron absorption.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so the nurse should monitor the client for hyperkalemia, which can cause muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias.

4. A client has a prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the patch to a hairless area of the body.
• B. Remove the patch every 12 hours.
• C. Massage the patch after applying it.
• D. Place the patch over a hairless area of the body.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to place it over a hairless area of the body. This is essential to ensure proper adhesion and consistent absorption of the medication. Hair can impede the patch's ability to stick to the skin and deliver the medication effectively. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Applying the patch to the same site every day (Choice A) may lead to skin irritation, removing the patch every 12 hours (Choice B) is not typically recommended for Nitroglycerin patches, and massaging the patch after applying it (Choice C) could alter its integrity and affect drug delivery.

5. A client in the post-anesthesia recovery unit received a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and is experiencing muscle weakness. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Neostigmine
• B. Naloxone
• C. Dantrolene
• D. Vecuronium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor commonly used to reverse the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers by increasing acetylcholine levels at the neuromuscular junction, thereby helping to restore muscle strength. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid effects, not neuromuscular blockade. Dantrolene is a skeletal muscle relaxant used to treat malignant hyperthermia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome, not to reverse neuromuscular blockade. Vecuronium is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent, like the one the client received, and is not used to reverse its effects.

Similar Questions