a nurse is caring for a client who has thrombophlebitis and is receiving heparin by continuous iv infusion the client asks the nurse how long it will
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023

1. A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.

2. During discharge instructions, a client with a new prescription for Phenytoin should be advised to take which of the following actions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for Phenytoin is to brush and floss their teeth regularly. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, a condition that affects the gums. By maintaining good oral hygiene practices such as regular brushing and flossing, the client can help minimize the risk of developing this side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for medications affected by grapefruit juice metabolism, taking medication on an empty stomach is not specifically indicated for Phenytoin, and increasing calcium-rich foods is not directly related to the side effects or administration of Phenytoin.

3. Which of the following is not directly related to drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Headaches, tachycardia, and dizziness are common side effects of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory properties. Projectile vomiting is not typically associated with nitroglycerin toxicity, making it the correct answer. Therefore, option D is the correct choice.

4. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation. Clients should monitor for this adverse effect characterized by swelling in the extremities. Muscle pain (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Verapamil. Dry cough (choice B) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors. Increased urination (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Verapamil. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring for peripheral edema.

5. What is the therapeutic use of metformin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Metformin is commonly prescribed to manage and control blood glucose levels in individuals with diabetes. It helps in reducing the amount of glucose produced by the liver and improves the body's response to insulin, thereby aiding in the regulation of blood sugar levels. It is not used to lower blood pressure, diminish seizure activity, increase heart rate, or decrease gastrointestinal secretions.

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