Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify the effectiveness of the treatment by observing which of the following?

• A. A chest x-ray reveals increased density in all fields
• B. The client reports feeling less anxious
• C. Diminished breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally
• D. ABG results include pH 7.48, PaO2 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 47 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because when a client reports feeling less anxious, it suggests that the treatment for a pulmonary embolism is effective. This is a good indicator of the client's overall well-being and response to treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a chest x-ray revealing increased density in all fields, diminished breath sounds auscultated bilaterally, and ABG results showing specific values do not directly correlate with the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. While these assessments are important for monitoring the client's condition, the client's subjective report of feeling less anxious provides a more direct insight into the impact of the treatment.

2. A nurse is administering medications to a group of clients. Which of the following occurrences requires the completion of an incident report?

• A. A client receives his antibiotics 2 hours late.
• B. A client vomits within 20 minutes of taking his morning medications.
• C. A client requests his statin to be administered at 2100.
• D. A client asks for pain medication 1 hour early.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client receives antibiotics 2 hours late, it constitutes a medication error, requiring the completion of an incident report. Choice B, a client vomiting within 20 minutes of taking medications, does not necessarily require an incident report unless it is suspected to be related to a medication error. Choice C, a client requesting a statin at a specific time, and choice D, a client asking for pain medication an hour early, are not incidents that mandate the completion of an incident report unless there are specific circumstances indicating otherwise.

3. A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, with a fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for 15 minutes, the nurse should suspect maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can result in fetal bradycardia, which is defined as an FHR less than 110 beats per minute. Maternal hypoglycemia requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the fetus. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to present with other signs such as pallor or tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is characterized by maternal fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid, but it is not directly linked to the FHR baseline being 100/min.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 15 minutes every 2 hours.
• B. Empty the drainage collection chamber when it is half full.
• C. Keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest.
• D. Strip the chest tube every 2 hours to maintain patency.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a client with a chest tube is to keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest. This positioning helps prevent fluid from flowing back into the pleural space, ensuring proper drainage and effective functioning of the chest tube. Clamping the chest tube intermittently or stripping it frequently can lead to complications and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage collection chamber at specific intervals may vary based on institutional protocols, but it should be done when it is no more than two-thirds full to prevent backflow and maintain accurate monitoring of drainage output.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a nasogastric tube for enteral feedings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to prevent aspiration?

• A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding.
• B. Check for gastric residuals every 4 hours.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
• D. Place the client in the left lateral position during feedings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings is the correct intervention to prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and subsequent aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Flushing the tube with water before feedings (Choice A) is not necessary for preventing aspiration. Checking for gastric residuals (Choice B) helps monitor feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration. Placing the client in the left lateral position (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for preventing aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube.

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