a nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina what risk factor should the nurse identify
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.

2. How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a central line to prevent infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Changing the central line dressing daily is crucial in preventing infection at the insertion site. This practice helps maintain a clean and sterile environment around the central line, reducing the risk of pathogens entering the bloodstream. Monitoring for redness (choice B) is important but may not directly prevent infection. Checking the central line site every shift (choice C) is essential for early detection of any issues but does not solely prevent infection. Flushing the line with saline (choice D) is a necessary procedure for maintaining central line patency but does not primarily prevent infection.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's Wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which condition as a result of an interaction between these substances?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome can occur due to the interaction between citalopram, an SSRI, and St. John's Wort, an herbal supplement. Symptoms of serotonin syndrome include confusion, agitation, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure, dilated pupils, loss of muscle coordination, and sweating. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the interaction between citalopram and St. John's Wort. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder associated with long-term use of certain medications, pseudoparkinsonism is a side effect of certain antipsychotic medications, and acute dystonia is a movement disorder caused by certain medications like antipsychotics.

4. How should a healthcare provider care for a patient with a tracheostomy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy regularly is crucial in caring for a patient with a tracheostomy as it helps keep the airway clear of secretions, preventing blockages and potential complications. Cleaning the tracheostomy site daily is important for hygiene but not as critical as regular suctioning. Changing the tracheostomy ties daily may not be necessary unless soiled or loose. Providing humidified oxygen may be part of the care plan but is not as directly related to maintaining the tracheostomy patency as suctioning.

5. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

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