a nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina what risk factor should the nurse identify
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.

2. A nurse is completing an incident report after a client fall. Which of the following competencies of Quality and Safety Education for Nurses is the nurse demonstrating?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Quality improvement. Completing an incident report after a client fall aligns with the quality improvement competency of QSEN, as it involves identifying a system issue (fall incident) that needs to be addressed to enhance the quality of care. Choice B, patient safety, focuses more on preventing harm to patients rather than the systematic improvement process. Choice C, evidence-based practice, pertains to integrating research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values in decision-making, which is not directly related to incident reporting. Choice D, informatics, involves using technology and data to support decision-making and improve patient care, which is not the primary focus when completing an incident report.

3. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic, should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia. Option A is incorrect because weight monitoring is crucial for furosemide due to fluid loss. Option C is incorrect as furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option D is incorrect because furosemide is best taken on an empty stomach for better absorption.

4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: White bread. White bread is low in potassium, making it a suitable choice for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Canned soup (choice A), bananas (choice B), and processed meats (choice D) are high in potassium and should be limited or avoided by individuals with chronic kidney disease to manage their condition effectively.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following precautions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct precaution to implement when caring for a client with Clostridium difficile infection is to wear a gown and gloves when providing care. Clostridium difficile is primarily spread through contact with feces, so wearing personal protective equipment like gowns and gloves is crucial in preventing the spread of the infection. Placing the client in a negative pressure room (Choice A) is not necessary for Clostridium difficile. While wearing an N95 respirator mask (Choice B) is important for airborne precautions, it is not required for Clostridium difficile. Placing a face mask on the client (Choice D) is not a standard precaution for preventing the spread of Clostridium difficile.

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