Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.

2. A client has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. You should avoid taking this medication with antacids.
• C. Take your pulse before taking this medication.
• D. You should contact your provider if you experience visual changes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include when teaching a client about digoxin is to 'Take your pulse before taking this medication.' This is essential because clients taking digoxin need to monitor their pulse to detect signs of bradycardia, a common adverse effect of the medication. Option A is incorrect because digoxin is usually recommended to be taken with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset. Option B is incorrect because antacids can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Option D is incorrect because contacting the provider for visual changes is important, but monitoring the pulse is crucial for digoxin administration.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber.
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber.
• D. Drainage of 75 mL in the first 24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber can indicate an air leak, which compromises the integrity of the chest tube system and should be reported to the provider for immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is an expected finding indicating that the system is working appropriately. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation of fluid level with inspiration and expiration, indicating that the system is functioning correctly. Drainage of 75 mL in the first 24 hours is within the expected range for chest tube drainage and does not require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

4. A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to increase dietary fiber.
• B. Maintain the client on a low-residue diet.
• C. Provide the client with frequent high-calorie snacks.
• D. Encourage the client to eat a high-fiber diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease, the nurse should maintain the client on a low-residue diet. This diet helps to minimize bowel irritation by reducing the volume and frequency of stools. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging the client to increase dietary fiber (Choice A) and eat a high-fiber diet (Choice D) can worsen symptoms and aggravate bowel inflammation in Crohn's disease. Providing the client with frequent high-calorie snacks (Choice C) may not be appropriate during an exacerbation since high-fat foods can be harder to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.

5. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the professional make in the medical record?

• A. Morphine 3 mg SC every 4 hr. PRN for pain
• B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
• C. Morphine 3.0 mg subq every 4 hr. PRN for pain
• D. Morphine 3 mg SC q 4 hr. PRN for pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct entry for the medication in the medical record should include the abbreviation 'SC' (subcutaneous) for the route of administration. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately represents the prescription received. Choice B is incorrect because it lacks the frequency and PRN indication. Choice C is incorrect due to the incorrect abbreviation 'subq' and the missing 'q' before the frequency. Choice D is incorrect because it uses 'SC' but the frequency abbreviation 'q' should be followed by the time interval.

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