Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.

2. What is the appropriate nursing response when a patient refuses blood transfusion due to religious beliefs?

• A. Respect the patient's decision and notify the provider
• B. Attempt to persuade the patient to accept the transfusion
• C. Document the refusal and notify the healthcare provider
• D. Provide education on the benefits of blood transfusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Respect the patient's decision and notify the provider." When a patient refuses a blood transfusion due to religious beliefs, it is essential to respect their autonomy and religious beliefs. Attempting to persuade the patient (Choice B) goes against the principle of respect for autonomy and can lead to ethical dilemmas. Documenting the refusal and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice C) is important for legal and ethical purposes but should be preceded by respecting the patient's decision. Providing education on the benefits of blood transfusion (Choice D) may be appropriate in other situations but is not indicated when a patient refuses based on religious beliefs.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be decreased?

• A. Bilirubin.
• B. Albumin.
• C. Ammonia.
• D. Prothrombin time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, albumin levels are typically decreased due to impaired liver function. Bilirubin levels are often increased in cirrhosis due to the liver's inability to process bilirubin efficiently. Ammonia levels may be elevated in cirrhosis due to impaired ammonia metabolism by the liver. Prothrombin time is usually prolonged in cirrhosis because the liver's ability to synthesize clotting factors is impaired.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Mouth sores
• C. Hyperpigmentation
• D. Increased saliva production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mouth sores. Mouth sores are a common side effect of radiation therapy, especially when the treatment is focused on the head or neck area. Weight gain is not typically associated with radiation therapy; instead, clients may experience weight loss due to side effects like nausea and loss of appetite. Hyperpigmentation is not a common finding related to radiation therapy. Increased saliva production is not a typical side effect of radiation therapy; instead, clients may experience dry mouth.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the need for an increase in the dose of warfarin?

• A. PT 28 seconds
• B. INR 1.2
• C. aPTT 40 seconds
• D. Fibrinogen 350 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating inadequate anticoagulation. Therefore, the client would require an increase in the dose of warfarin to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of the need for a dose increase in warfarin therapy. PT of 28 seconds is within the therapeutic range, aPTT of 40 seconds is also within the normal range, and fibrinogen level of 350 mg/dL does not provide information about the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.

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