Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client with a prescription for digoxin. Which result requires withholding the medication?

• A. Digoxin 0.8 ng/mL
• B. Sodium 145 mEq/L
• C. BUN 20 mg/dL
• D. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A low potassium level (3.1 mEq/L) can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypokalemia can potentiate the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate a need to withhold digoxin.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report?

• A. Chest pain
• B. Muscle spasms
• C. Cool, moist skin
• D. Incisional pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy, chest pain is a critical finding that should be reported immediately. Chest pain can indicate serious complications such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism, which require prompt intervention. Muscle spasms and cool, moist skin are not typical signs of immediate concern following an arterial thrombectomy. Incisional pain is expected postoperatively and may not warrant immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Albumin 3.5 g/dL
• B. Bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL
• C. INR 3.0
• D. Ammonia 80 mcg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is elevated, indicating impaired blood clotting function, which poses a significant risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis. This finding should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A (Albumin 3.5 g/dL) is within the normal range and indicates adequate liver synthetic function, so it does not require immediate reporting. Choice B (Bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL) is also within the normal range and typically seen in clients without significant liver dysfunction, so it does not need urgent attention. Choice D (Ammonia 80 mcg/dL) is elevated, but it is not the priority finding in cirrhosis; elevated ammonia levels are associated with hepatic encephalopathy rather than increased bleeding risk.

5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid eating spicy foods.
• B. Eat three large meals each day.
• C. Lie down after meals.
• D. Increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can trigger GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating three large meals each day can exacerbate GERD symptoms by putting pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, lying down after meals can worsen reflux due to gravity, and increasing dairy product intake may lead to higher fat consumption, which can also trigger GERD symptoms.

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