Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation. The nurse should report which of the following laboratory results to the provider?

• A. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
• B. Platelet count 148,000/mm3
• C. Leukocyte count 9,000/mm3
• D. Blood glucose 80 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A hemoglobin level of 11.2 g/dL is below the normal range for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and should be reported to the provider.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of furosemide. Which of the following findings indicates the nurse should increase the client's infusion rate?

• A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
• B. Heart rate of 90/min
• C. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• D. Weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hours can indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring an increase in diuresis. This finding suggests that the current diuretic therapy is not effective enough to manage the fluid overload, necessitating an increase in the infusion rate of furosemide. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the need for an increase in diuretic therapy in heart failure patients. Urine output of 20 mL/hr, a heart rate of 90/min, and a sodium level of 138 mEq/L are important parameters to monitor but do not specifically indicate the need to increase the infusion rate of furosemide.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 90/min
• B. Redness and warmth in the calf
• C. Oxygen saturation of 95%
• D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Redness and warmth in the calf can indicate a blood clot, specifically deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication post hip arthroplasty. The warmth and redness are signs of inflammation due to the clot formation. DVT can lead to a pulmonary embolism if not addressed promptly. Monitoring for this complication is crucial in postoperative care. Elevated heart rate, oxygen saturation within normal limits, and a slightly elevated temperature are common findings postoperatively and may not be alarming in the absence of other concerning symptoms.

5. A client with osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse how to prevent further bone loss. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take a calcium supplement daily.
• B. Perform weight-bearing exercises.
• C. Avoid weight-bearing exercises.
• D. Limit intake of high-phosphorus foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perform weight-bearing exercises. Weight-bearing exercises are essential for preventing further bone loss and improving bone density in clients with osteoporosis. Calcium supplements alone may not be sufficient to prevent bone loss without adequate physical activity. Option C, 'Avoid weight-bearing exercises,' is incorrect as these exercises are beneficial for bone health. Option D, 'Limit intake of high-phosphorus foods,' is not directly related to preventing further bone loss in osteoporosis.

Similar Questions