Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.

2. A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level.
• B. A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr.
• C. A client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag.
• D. A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client with low blood glucose levels needs immediate assessment to ensure stabilization. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening situations that require urgent assessment. Option B can be attended to after addressing the client with low blood glucose levels. Option C can be managed based on the infusion rate and the client's condition. Option D, although important, can be assessed after ensuring the client with low blood glucose levels is stable.

3. A nurse in a pediatric clinic is reviewing laboratory findings for a school-age child. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Hgb 12.5 g/dL
• B. Platelets 250,000/mm3
• C. WBC 14,000/mm3
• D. Hct 40%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Hct 40%'. An abnormal hematocrit (Hct) level can indicate various conditions such as dehydration, overhydration, or blood disorders, and requires immediate attention from the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not typically warrant immediate provider notification. Hgb 12.5 g/dL (Choice A) is a normal hemoglobin level, Platelets 250,000/mm3 (Choice B) is a normal platelet count, and WBC 14,000/mm3 (Choice C) is slightly elevated but not significantly high to require urgent reporting.

4. What is the appropriate diet for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Low protein diet
• B. High protein diet
• C. Low sodium diet
• D. Low potassium diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A low protein diet is the appropriate choice for a patient with chronic kidney disease because it helps to reduce the buildup of waste products in the body, which the kidneys may struggle to filter out. High protein diets can put extra strain on the kidneys by increasing the workload to eliminate the byproducts of protein metabolism. While low sodium and low potassium diets can also be important for managing certain aspects of kidney disease, the primary focus should be on controlling protein intake to lessen the burden on the kidneys.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What question should the nurse ask?

• A. Do you understand the voices are not real?
• B. Why do you think the voices are talking to you?
• C. Have you tried going to a quiet place when this occurs?
• D. What helps you ignore the voices?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Exploring strategies to ignore the hallucinations can help clients manage symptoms.

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