Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Weight loss.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Peripheral edema.
• D. Dry cough.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peripheral edema. In right-sided heart failure, the heart struggles to pump blood efficiently, leading to fluid backup in the body. This fluid retention commonly manifests as peripheral edema, causing swelling in the legs, ankles, and feet. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss is not typically associated with right-sided heart failure; bradycardia (slow heart rate) is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or athletes, not specifically in right-sided heart failure; and a dry cough is more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, not typically with right-sided heart failure.

3. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 80/min.
• B. Weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours.
• C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
• D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or fluid imbalance, which should be reported. This rapid weight loss could be a sign of excessive diuresis, potentially leading to hypovolemia or electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring weight changes is crucial in clients with heart failure receiving diuretics. The other findings are within normal ranges and expected in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure. A heart rate of 80/min, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr are generally acceptable in this scenario.

4. A client is 24 hours postoperative following a right-sided mastectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Place the client in the supine position.
• B. Encourage the client to lift objects with the right arm.
• C. Measure the client's blood pressure on the right arm.
• D. Elevate the client's right arm on a pillow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the client's right arm on a pillow is essential post-mastectomy to reduce swelling and promote circulation. Placing the client in the supine position may not be comfortable or ideal after a mastectomy. Encouraging the client to lift objects with the right arm can strain the surgical site and hinder healing. Measuring the client's blood pressure on the right arm should be avoided to prevent disruption to the area and inaccurate readings.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Cough.
• B. Dry mouth.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A persistent cough is a known adverse effect of enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to a dry, persistent cough in some patients. Dry mouth (choice B) and urinary retention (choice C) are not typically associated with enalapril use. Insomnia (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

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