ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.
2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic pain?
- A. Administer analgesics
- B. Encourage physical activity
- C. Administer non-pharmacological interventions
- D. Encourage deep breathing exercises
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering prescribed analgesics is a crucial aspect of managing chronic pain effectively. Analgesics help alleviate pain symptoms and improve the patient's quality of life. While physical activity and non-pharmacological interventions can also play a role in pain management, the immediate need for relief in chronic pain often requires pharmacological intervention. Encouraging deep breathing exercises may provide some relief in certain situations, but it may not be as effective as analgesics for managing chronic pain.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Hair loss
- C. Nausea
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect of radiation therapy due to damage to the salivary glands. It is essential for the nurse to monitor for this condition as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort. Fatigue (choice A) is a common side effect of radiation therapy, but in this case, dry mouth is a more specific side effect to monitor for. Hair loss (choice B) is more commonly associated with chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. Nausea (choice C) is also a common side effect of radiation therapy, but dry mouth is a more direct effect of the treatment that the nurse should focus on monitoring.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to promote airway clearance?
- A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- B. Suction the client every 2 hours.
- C. Perform chest physiotherapy every 8 hours.
- D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake is essential to promote airway clearance in pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps to thin respiratory secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Suctioning every 2 hours may be too frequent and can lead to airway trauma and irritation. Chest physiotherapy is not typically indicated for pneumonia unless there are specific complications. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary to maintain oxygen saturation but does not directly promote airway clearance.
5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid eating leafy green vegetables while taking this medication.
- B. I will increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K while taking this medication.
- D. I will take this medication at bedtime to avoid dizziness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients taking warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K, as it can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication.
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