Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum calcium
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Serum protein
• D. Serum albumin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum albumin. Serum albumin levels are a good indicator of the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Monitoring serum albumin levels helps assess the client's overall protein status and nutritional adequacy. Choices A, B, and C are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of TPN therapy. Serum calcium levels may be affected by other factors, blood glucose monitoring is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those receiving insulin therapy, and serum protein is not as specific as serum albumin in evaluating TPN effectiveness.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Productive cough with green sputum
• B. Temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
• C. Crackles in the lung bases
• D. Oxygen saturation of 95%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with pneumonia, crackles in the lung bases can indicate fluid accumulation, worsening of the condition, or development of complications such as pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are common in clients with pneumonia and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms or vital sign abnormalities.

4. What is the priority intervention for a patient with dehydration?

• A. Administer IV fluids
• B. Monitor intake and output
• C. Administer oral fluids
• D. Provide electrolyte replacement

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer IV fluids. This intervention is the priority as it helps rapidly restore hydration in patients with dehydration by delivering fluids directly into the bloodstream. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is important but comes after providing immediate fluid resuscitation. Administering oral fluids (choice C) may not be sufficient for a patient with dehydration who requires rapid rehydration. Providing electrolyte replacement (choice D) is essential but often follows fluid resuscitation to correct any electrolyte imbalances resulting from dehydration.

5. A client scheduled for a thoracentesis requires assistance from a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Assist the client to a prone position.
• B. Assist the client to a sitting position.
• C. Assist the client to a supine position.
• D. Assist the client to a lateral position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client to a sitting position. Placing the client in a sitting position helps facilitate easier access during the thoracentesis procedure by allowing gravity to assist in the removal of pleural fluid. Placing the client in a prone, supine, or lateral position would not provide the optimal positioning needed for a thoracentesis and could make the procedure more challenging or uncomfortable for the client.

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