ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.
2. A client who is taking phenytoin is being taught about contraceptive options. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. You should use a backup method of birth control while taking phenytoin.
- B. Phenytoin can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
- C. You should stop taking phenytoin while using oral contraceptives.
- D. Phenytoin can increase the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Phenytoin can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so it is important to inform the client about this interaction. Using an additional form of contraception, such as a backup method, is recommended to ensure adequate protection against pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect because it lacks specificity about the decrease in effectiveness of oral contraceptives caused by phenytoin. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests stopping phenytoin use while using oral contraceptives, which is not the appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as phenytoin is known to decrease, not increase, the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. INR 2.0
- B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
- C. aPTT 60 seconds
- D. WBC count 8,000/mm3
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level every hour
- B. Administer the blood using a microdrip set
- C. Assess the client's vital signs every 2 hours
- D. Infuse the blood within 4 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to infuse the blood within 4 hours. This is crucial to prevent bacterial contamination and hemolysis during blood transfusions. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level every hour (Choice A) is not directly related to packed RBC transfusions. Administering the blood using a microdrip set (Choice B) may be appropriate for specific medications but is not a requirement for packed RBC transfusions. Assessing the client's vital signs every 2 hours (Choice C) is important for monitoring the client's overall condition but is not as time-sensitive as ensuring the timely infusion of packed RBCs.
5. A client who has a new prescription for lithium is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I will avoid eating foods that contain tyramine.''
- B. ''I should increase my salt intake while taking this medication.''
- C. ''I should drink at least 2 liters of water each day while taking this medication.''
- D. ''I should avoid consuming caffeinated beverages while taking this medication.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Drinking at least 2 liters of water daily is crucial for clients taking lithium to prevent dehydration and lithium toxicity. Lithium is a salt, so it's important for clients to maintain adequate hydration. Option A is incorrect because lithium does not interact with tyramine-containing foods. Option B is incorrect because increasing salt intake is not necessary and can actually exacerbate lithium toxicity. Option D is incorrect because avoiding caffeinated beverages is not a priority teaching point for clients taking lithium.
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