ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. Which finding indicates that the propranolol is effective?
- A. The client reports an increase in weight
- B. The client has a decrease in blood pressure
- C. The client reports an increase in energy
- D. The client's respiratory rate has increased
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a decrease in blood pressure is an expected outcome when propranolol, a beta-blocker, is effectively managing hyperthyroidism. Propranolol helps control symptoms such as tachycardia and hypertension associated with hyperthyroidism. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, increased energy, and an increased respiratory rate are not direct indicators of propranolol's effectiveness in treating hyperthyroidism.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient with an infection. Which laboratory result is most important to monitor?
- A. White blood cell count (WBC)
- B. C-reactive protein (CRP)
- C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: White blood cell count (WBC). Monitoring the white blood cell count is crucial when caring for a patient with an infection as it helps assess the body's response to the infection. An elevated white blood cell count often indicates an active infection or inflammation, while a decreasing count may signal improvement or potential complications. C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are nonspecific markers of inflammation and not as specific to monitoring infection progression as the white blood cell count. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are important for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity and blood volume, but they are not the primary indicators for monitoring infection.
3. A healthcare provider writes a medication order that seems excessively high for the patient's condition. What is the nurse's first step?
- A. Administer the medication immediately.
- B. Hold the medication and consult the provider.
- C. Reduce the dose without consulting the provider.
- D. Administer the medication after double-checking with another nurse.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first step for the nurse when encountering a medication order that appears excessively high for the patient's condition is to hold the medication and consult the provider. Administering the medication immediately (Choice A) without clarification could pose a risk to the patient's safety. Reducing the dose without consulting the provider (Choice C) is not recommended as it may lead to suboptimal treatment. Administering the medication after double-checking with another nurse (Choice D) is not sufficient; consulting the provider directly is crucial to ensure the accuracy and safety of the medication order.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client 15 minutes after administering morphine sulfate 2 mg via IV push. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Drowsy but responsive when her name is called
- B. SaO2 94%
- C. Respiratory rate 8/min
- D. Pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is a significant adverse effect of morphine that indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The client may not be effectively ventilating, leading to hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Option A is less concerning as being drowsy but responsive is a common side effect of morphine. Option B indicates decreased oxygen saturation, which is also a concern but not as severe as respiratory depression. Option D is important but not as critical as the potential respiratory compromise indicated by the low respiratory rate.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Improvement in visual acuity
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Weight loss of 1.36 kg (3 lb) in 24 hours
- D. Increased urinary output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output is the desired outcome when administering furosemide to a client with heart failure. Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes the excretion of excess fluids from the body, which helps in reducing fluid overload, a common symptom of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the action of furosemide in treating heart failure. Visual acuity improvement, decreased respiratory rate, and rapid weight loss are not typical indicators of furosemide effectiveness in managing heart failure.
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