Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention should be prioritized for a client experiencing panic-level anxiety?

• A. Postpone health teaching until anxiety subsides
• B. Encourage participation in group therapy
• C. Monitor vital signs every 5 minutes
• D. Provide reassurance and remain with the client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During panic-level anxiety, the priority is to provide reassurance and remain with the client. This intervention helps to offer immediate support, comfort, and a sense of safety to the client. Postponing health teaching until anxiety subsides (Choice A) is not appropriate as the client's immediate emotional needs are more critical. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice B) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the priority during a panic attack. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, providing reassurance and support take precedence in managing panic-level anxiety.

2. The patient experienced a surgical procedure, and Betadine was utilized as the surgical prep. Two days postoperatively, the nurse's assessment indicates that the incision is red and has a small amount of purulent drainage. The patient reports tenderness at the incision site. The patient's temperature is 100.5°F, and the WBC is 10,500/mm³. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Reevaluate the temperature and white blood cell count in 4 hours.
• B. Check which solution was used for skin preparation in surgery.
• C. Plan to change the surgical dressing during the shift.
• D. Utilize SBAR to notify the primary health care provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient is showing signs of a possible surgical site infection, including redness, purulent drainage, tenderness, elevated temperature, and increased white blood cell count. These symptoms suggest the need for immediate action to address a potential complication. Utilizing SBAR to notify the primary health care provider is crucial as it allows for effective communication of the patient's condition and the need for further assessment and intervention. Reevaluating the temperature and white blood cell count later, checking the solution used for skin preparation, or planning to change the dressing do not address the urgent need for intervention and communication with the healthcare provider.

3. A client with a new prescription for sumatriptan tablets to treat migraine headaches should report which of the following symptoms to the nurse?

• A. Chew the tablet well before swallowing
• B. Report swelling of the eyelids after dosage
• C. Repeat dose in 1 hour for unrelieved headache
• D. Take daily to prevent headaches

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling of the eyelids is a side effect of sumatriptan tablets that requires immediate reporting to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Chewing the tablet well before swallowing is not necessary for sumatriptan tablets. Repeating the dose in 1 hour for unrelieved headache is incorrect as this medication should not be repeated within 24 hours. Taking sumatriptan daily for headache prevention is also incorrect as it is used for acute treatment, not prevention.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which client first?

• A. A client who has pneumonia and a WBC count of 11,500/mm3 prescribed piperacillin
• B. A client who has renal failure and a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate
• C. A client who is post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) prescribed atorvastatin
• D. A client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with renal failure and high potassium levels requires immediate attention because hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac complications. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate helps lower the potassium levels. Choice A, the client with pneumonia and a high WBC count, although important, does not present an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice C, the post-CABG client prescribed atorvastatin, and Choice D, the client with anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa, do not require immediate intervention compared to managing hyperkalemia in a client with renal failure.

5. A nurse is assessing the skin of an immobilized patient. What will the nurse do?

• A. Use a standardized tool such as the Braden Scale.
• B. Limit the amount of fluid intake.
• C. Have special times for inspection so as not to interrupt routine care.
• D. Assess the skin every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, it is essential to use a standardized tool such as the Braden Scale to identify patients at high risk for impaired skin integrity. This tool helps in early identification and appropriate intervention. Choice B, limiting fluid intake, is not directly related to skin assessment. Choice C, having special times for inspection, may not ensure timely identification of skin issues. Choice D, assessing the skin every 4 hours, lacks specificity regarding the use of a validated tool for risk assessment.

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