a nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis and has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days the provider prescribes warfarin po

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

A. Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today.
C. Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots.
D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

2. What is the therapeutic classification of Furosemide?

A. Antidiuretics
B. Diuretics
C. Anticonvulsants
D. Antidotes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is classified therapeutically as a diuretic. Diuretics are medications used to promote diuresis, which helps the body get rid of excess salt and water. Furosemide is commonly prescribed to treat conditions such as fluid retention and swelling (edema) associated with congestive heart failure, liver disease, or kidney disorders. Choice A, Antidiuretics, is incorrect as Furosemide acts as a diuretic, promoting the production of urine. Choice C, Anticonvulsants, is also incorrect as Furosemide is not used to treat seizures. Choice D, Antidotes, is incorrect as Furosemide is not an antidote but rather a medication used to treat conditions related to fluid retention.

3. A client has a new prescription for Cyclobenzaprine to treat muscle spasms. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication.
B. Take this medication on an empty stomach for best results.
C. Take this medication only when experiencing muscle pain.
D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include in the teaching for a client prescribed Cyclobenzaprine is to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication. Cyclobenzaprine can cause drowsiness, so it is important to advise clients to avoid activities that require alertness and coordination to prevent accidents or injuries. Choice B is incorrect because Cyclobenzaprine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect because Cyclobenzaprine is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just when experiencing muscle pain. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific need to increase potassium-rich foods while taking Cyclobenzaprine.

4. Which statement is true about food and drug precautions?

A. Limiting certain types of food or administering certain types of drugs is necessary.
B. Certain combinations of food and drugs can cause adverse reactions.
C. Precautions may involve limiting certain types of food or administering drugs rather than restricting the drug itself.
D. When one drug alters the way another drug affects the body.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Certain combinations of food and drugs can indeed lead to adverse reactions. It is important to be cautious with the simultaneous intake of food and drugs as interactions between them can affect their efficacy and safety. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the potential risks associated with the combination of food and drugs.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Morphine to manage post-operative pain. Which of the following assessments should the healthcare professional perform first?

A. Urine output
B. Bowel sounds
C. Pain level
D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The healthcare professional should prioritize assessing the client's respiratory rate because respiratory depression is a life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate allows for early detection of potential complications and timely intervention to prevent harm. Assessing urine output, bowel sounds, and pain level are important but should come after ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable as it is the most critical assessment to prevent serious complications associated with opioid use.