a nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis and has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days the provider prescribes warfarin po
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

2. When administering Amitriptyline to a client experiencing cancer pain, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Orthostatic hypotension.' When administering Amitriptyline, the nurse should monitor for orthostatic hypotension. This condition can occur due to the drug's anticholinergic effects, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up. Symptoms may include dizziness, lightheadedness, and an increased risk of falls. Monitoring for signs of orthostatic hypotension is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as decreased appetite, explosive diarrhea, and decreased pulse rate are not typically associated with the administration of Amitriptyline.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.

4. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia can result in muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias, making it essential for the nurse to monitor potassium levels closely when a client is on Spironolactone. Choice B, Hypoglycemia, is incorrect because Spironolactone is not known to cause low blood sugar levels. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, and Choice D, Hyponatremia, are also incorrect as Spironolactone is not associated with decreased levels of calcium or sodium.

5. A client reports using over-the-counter calcium carbonate antacid. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse make about taking this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct recommendation for taking calcium carbonate antacid is to drink a glass of water after taking the medication. This practice enhances the effectiveness of the antacid by promoting its dissolution and absorption in the stomach, providing relief from symptoms of heartburn and indigestion. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not relevant as calcium carbonate antacid does not typically cause diarrhea. Choice B is inaccurate as taking calcium carbonate with dairy products may decrease its absorption due to the presence of calcium in both sources. Choice C is unrelated to the administration of calcium carbonate antacid.

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