a nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis and has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days the provider prescribes warfarin po
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

2. A client has been prescribed Prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prednisone is best taken in the morning to reduce the risk of insomnia, a common side effect of corticosteroids. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning aligns with the goal of minimizing the impact of insomnia, which can disrupt sleep patterns and affect overall well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Prednisone with food does not primarily focus on preventing nausea; taking it at bedtime does not primarily reduce drowsiness, and avoiding sudden changes in position is not a specific instruction related to Prednisone use for asthma.

3. When providing teaching to a client starting therapy with trastuzumab, which finding should the nurse instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of trastuzumab. Monitoring and early reporting of respiratory symptoms like dyspnea are essential to prevent further complications and ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with trastuzumab therapy and are not priority symptoms that require immediate reporting for this specific medication.

4. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic properties, slowing down the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia by regularly assessing the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Monitoring for tachycardia (choice A) is incorrect as diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia. Hypertension (choice C) is not a typical finding to monitor for with diltiazem use. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is not directly associated with diltiazem administration.

5. A client is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as a sign of potential toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can lead to toxicity, which can manifest as various signs and symptoms, including bradycardia. Monitoring the client's heart rate closely is crucial to detect and manage potential toxicity early. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and hypocalcemia are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

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