Nursing Elites

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today.
• C. Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

2. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following foods should the provider instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Broccoli
• B. Bananas
• C. Chicken
• D. Potatoes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients taking Warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as broccoli, as they can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication. Vitamin K can counteract the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin, potentially leading to blood clotting issues. Broccoli is rich in vitamin K, so its consumption should be consistent to avoid fluctuations in the medication's effectiveness. Bananas, chicken, and potatoes are not known to significantly interact with Warfarin and do not pose a risk of affecting its anticoagulant properties.

3. A client with OCD has a new prescription for Paroxetine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. It can take several weeks before you feel like the medication is helping.
• B. Take the medication just before bedtime to promote sleep.
• C. You should take the medication when needed for obsessive urges.
• D. Monitor for weight gain while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include when teaching a client with OCD who has a new prescription for Paroxetine is that it can take several weeks before the client feels like the medication is helping. Paroxetine, like other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can take 1 to 4 weeks before the client reaches the full therapeutic benefit. Therefore, it is important to inform the client about this delay in onset of action to manage their expectations and promote adherence to the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Paroxetine before bedtime is not necessary, it should be taken consistently at the same time each day; Paroxetine is usually taken regularly, not as needed; and while monitoring weight is important, it is not a specific instruction related to the onset of action for Paroxetine.

4. A client with migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which finding in the client's history should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
• B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
• C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
• D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with first-degree heart block due to its negative inotropic and chronotropic effects. The nurse should report this finding to the provider to consider an alternative therapy to prevent potential worsening of cardiac conduction abnormalities. Choices A, B, and C are not directly contraindications to Propranolol therapy for migraine headaches and do not pose immediate risks that would require reporting to the provider.

5. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

• A. I'll take this medicine with my meals.
• B. I'll take this medicine 30 minutes before I eat.
• C. I'll take this medicine just before I go to bed.
• D. I'll take this medicine as soon as I wake up in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. To ensure the insulin is available when food is digested, the client should take this medication 30 minutes before each meal. This timing aligns the medication with the expected postprandial rise in blood glucose levels, optimizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Repaglinide with meals, just before bed, or as soon as waking up does not align with the medication's mechanism of action and timing needed for optimal effectiveness.

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