a nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis and has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days the provider prescribes warfarin po
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

2. A client is prescribed Propranolol for a dysrhythmia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should plan to take when administering Propranolol is to assist the client when sitting up or standing after taking the medication. Propranolol can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness upon sudden position changes. It is essential to help the client with position changes to prevent falls or injury. Holding Propranolol if the client's apical pulse is greater than 100/min (Choice A) is incorrect because Propranolol is often used to manage dysrhythmias and slowing down the heart rate. Administering Propranolol to decrease the client's blood pressure (Choice B) is not the primary indication for using this medication. Monitoring the client for hypokalemia due to the risk of Propranolol toxicity (Choice D) is not a direct effect of Propranolol; rather, it is more related to other medications like diuretics.

3. While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a healthcare provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by inhibiting its formation, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload on the heart. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the action of beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of antidiabetic medications, not ACE inhibitors.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nausea is a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity. Along with vomiting, visual disturbances, and confusion, it can be an early indication of an overdose. Dry mouth is not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Hypoglycemia is a low blood sugar level and is not directly related to Digoxin toxicity. Tinnitus, a ringing in the ears, is not a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Healthcare providers should closely monitor clients on Digoxin for symptoms like nausea to prevent serious complications.

5. A client has a prescription for Levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to increase absorption and efficacy. Taking it with food or antacids can interfere with its absorption, leading to reduced effectiveness of the medication.

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