a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy for cancer treatment the client reports nausea and vomiting which of the following medica
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ondansetron. Ondansetron is a commonly used antiemetic for managing nausea and vomiting in clients undergoing chemotherapy. It works by blocking serotonin to reduce these symptoms effectively. Metoclopramide (choice B) is another antiemetic but is more commonly used for gastric motility disorders. Promethazine (choice C) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but ondansetron is often preferred for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting due to its efficacy and fewer side effects. Lorazepam (choice D) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and insomnia, not typically for managing nausea and vomiting in this context.

2. Which of the following is not a known effect of the drug Clozapine?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clozapine is associated with side effects like agranulocytosis (a serious blood condition), sedation (not hyperactivity), and is used as an antipsychotic to treat schizophrenia. Hyperactivity is not a typical effect of Clozapine, making it the correct answer in this context.

3. A client is starting a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients prescribed verapamil should be advised to avoid grapefruit juice as it can potentiate the drug's effects, leading to adverse reactions. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of verapamil, resulting in higher blood levels of the medication and an increased risk of side effects. Instructions such as taking the medication with a full glass of water (Choice A) are not specific to verapamil and are generally recommended. While monitoring blood pressure regularly (Choice C) is important for clients on antihypertensive medications, it is not a direct concern related to verapamil. Monitoring heart rate daily (Choice D) is not a primary consideration when starting verapamil, as it is more commonly used for its effects on blood pressure and arrhythmias rather than heart rate.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who came to the clinic for a seasonal influenza immunization. The healthcare provider should identify that which of the following clients is a candidate to receive the vaccine via nasal spray rather than an injection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A 17-year-old can be immunized for influenza with the LAIV via nasal spray. A hypersensitivity to penicillin is not a contraindication for an influenza immunization. Nasal spray influenza vaccine is generally recommended for healthy individuals between 2 and 49 years old. Choices A, C, and D are not candidates for nasal spray influenza vaccine. A 1-year-old is too young, pregnant individuals should not receive the nasal spray, and age is a factor for the use of the nasal spray vaccine.

5. A client with chronic renal disease is receiving therapy with epoetin alfa. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse review for an indication of a therapeutic effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The hematocrit (Hct). Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa because this medication stimulates red blood cell production in clients with chronic renal disease. The leukocyte count (choice A) and platelet count (choice B) are not directly affected by epoetin alfa therapy. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa.

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