a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 60 meql which of the following findings should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperkalemia. In chronic kidney disease, there is decreased renal excretion of potassium, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) is low potassium levels, which is the opposite finding in this scenario. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is decreased calcium levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease or elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) is low blood sugar levels and is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease or high potassium levels.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is immediately postoperative following a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which of the following should the nurse expect to administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the correct answer because it is administered to treat hypocalcemia, a common complication post-thyroidectomy. After a thyroidectomy, there is a risk of damaging the parathyroid glands, which can lead to a decrease in calcium levels. Administering calcium gluconate helps to raise calcium levels. Sodium bicarbonate (Choice B) is not typically indicated for immediate postoperative care following a subtotal thyroidectomy. Potassium chloride (Choice C) is not directly related to the common complications of this specific surgery. Sodium phosphate (Choice D) is not typically used to address immediate postoperative issues post-thyroidectomy.

3. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling in the hands is a potential sign of worsening preeclampsia, and the client should report this to their provider. Choice A is incorrect since aspirin is not recommended in preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect as calcium intake is not directly related to preventing seizures in preeclampsia. Choice D is incorrect because protein restriction is not the standard management for preventing further kidney damage in preeclampsia.

4. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight monitoring is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients receiving diuretics. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare providers to track changes in fluid status more precisely. While monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential, it may not provide a comprehensive picture of overall fluid balance. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is important but may not directly reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice D) is useful but may not be as sensitive as daily weight monitoring in assessing fluid balance.

5. A client is being taught about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking furosemide should avoid alcohol because it can lead to dehydration and potential interactions with the medication. Choices A and B are incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so the client should not expect an increase in potassium levels or solely rely on bananas for potassium intake. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of furosemide and should not be a reason to stop taking the medication.

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