a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 60 meql which of the following findings should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperkalemia. In chronic kidney disease, there is decreased renal excretion of potassium, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) is low potassium levels, which is the opposite finding in this scenario. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is decreased calcium levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease or elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) is low blood sugar levels and is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease or high potassium levels.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus and is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common sign of hypoglycemia due to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. Tachycardia (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia. Dry mouth (choice B) is not a typical finding in hypoglycemia but may be seen in hyperglycemia. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a typical sign of hypoglycemia and is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia.

3. What is the appropriate nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a suspected stroke?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a neurological assessment is the appropriate nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a suspected stroke. This assessment helps determine the severity of the stroke, identify potential deficits, and guide further interventions. Administering thrombolytics (Choice A) should only be done after a CT scan to confirm the type of stroke and rule out hemorrhagic stroke. Performing a CT scan (Choice C) is important but is typically done after stabilizing the patient. Administering oxygen (Choice D) is essential to maintain adequate oxygenation, but performing a neurological assessment takes precedence in the immediate management of a suspected stroke.

4. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism to improve oxygenation levels. In pulmonary embolism, there is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries, leading to decreased oxygen exchange. Administering oxygen helps increase oxygen saturation levels. Anticoagulants (Choice B) are essential in the treatment of pulmonary embolism but are not the initial priority intervention. Surgery (Choice C) is not typically the first-line treatment for pulmonary embolism. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important but administering oxygen takes precedence as the immediate action to address hypoxemia.

5. A client is receiving radiation therapy for cancer. Which of the following skin care instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid exposing the irradiated area to direct sunlight. Direct sunlight can further damage the skin during radiation therapy. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol-based lotions can irritate the skin further. Choice C is incorrect because mild soap and water can be drying to the skin. Choice D is incorrect because applying ice packs can cause additional skin damage during radiation therapy.

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