ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI
1. A client has been prescribed Prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Take this medication at bedtime to reduce drowsiness.
- C. Take this medication in the morning to reduce insomnia.
- D. Avoid sudden changes in position.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Prednisone is best taken in the morning to reduce the risk of insomnia, a common side effect of corticosteroids. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning aligns with the goal of minimizing the impact of insomnia, which can disrupt sleep patterns and affect overall well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Prednisone with food does not primarily focus on preventing nausea; taking it at bedtime does not primarily reduce drowsiness, and avoiding sudden changes in position is not a specific instruction related to Prednisone use for asthma.
2. A client has a prescription for Prednisone for the treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. I should take my medication with food.
- C. I will decrease my intake of calcium-rich foods.
- D. I should avoid eating grapefruit while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Prednisone can cause hypokalemia, leading to low potassium levels. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods helps prevent this imbalance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Prednisone with food, decreasing calcium-rich foods, or avoiding grapefruit are not specifically related to addressing the side effect of hypokalemia associated with Prednisone.
3. How should a client prevent systemic absorption of Timolol eye drops according to the nurse's instructions?
- A. Bony orbit
- B. Nasolacrimal duct
- C. Conjunctival sac
- D. Outer canthus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct technique to prevent systemic absorption of eye drops is to press on the nasolacrimal duct while instilling them. By doing so, the lacrimal punctum gets temporarily blocked, reducing drainage into the nasolacrimal duct and systemic circulation. This method helps enhance the localized effect of the medication and decreases the risk of systemic side effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not play a direct role in preventing systemic absorption of the eye drops.
4. When caring for a client receiving treatment with irinotecan, which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Hypertension
- C. Ototoxicity
- D. Neutropenia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is diarrhea. Irinotecan commonly causes diarrhea as an adverse effect due to its impact on the gastrointestinal tract. Monitoring for diarrhea is essential to prevent dehydration and manage this side effect effectively. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, ototoxicity, and neutropenia are not commonly associated with irinotecan therapy.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?
- A. aPTT of 90 seconds
- B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
- C. INR of 1.0
- D. Hgb of 15 g/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.
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