ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client has been prescribed Aspirin for prevention of cardiovascular disease. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?
- A. The client has a decrease in troponin levels.
- B. The client has a regular heart rhythm.
- C. The client experiences a decrease in episodes of angina.
- D. The client's blood pressure remains stable.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A decrease in episodes of angina indicates that Aspirin is effectively preventing the formation of clots that could lead to cardiovascular events. Angina is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually due to coronary artery disease. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, thereby reducing the risk of clot formation in the arteries. Improvement in angina symptoms suggests that the medication is successfully preventing clot-related complications in the cardiovascular system. Monitoring and recognizing a decrease in angina episodes can be a valuable indicator of the medication's efficacy in preventing cardiovascular events. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decrease in troponin levels, a regular heart rhythm, or stable blood pressure, while important parameters, do not directly reflect the effectiveness of Aspirin in preventing cardiovascular events through antiplatelet action.
2. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- C. Expect to have increased urination.
- D. Take the medication with an antacid.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting Warfarin is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding; therefore, it is crucial for the client to watch for any signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stools, or unusual bleeding from gums or nose. If any of these signs occur, the client should promptly report them to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding foods high in vitamin K is related to other medications like Coumadin, increased urination is not a common side effect of Warfarin, and taking Warfarin with an antacid can potentially interfere with its absorption.
3. A client has a new prescription for Ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with milk.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Take this medication before bedtime.
- D. Take this medication with antacids.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to take Ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach. This medication is best absorbed when taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals. Instructing the client to take it with milk, before bedtime, or with antacids can decrease its absorption and effectiveness. Taking it with milk can reduce the absorption of iron due to the calcium in milk. Taking it before bedtime is not necessary and may cause gastrointestinal upset. Taking it with antacids can interfere with the absorption of iron.
4. What instruction should the nurse give regarding the adverse effect of dry mouth associated with diphenhydramine for a client with poison ivy?
- A. Administer the medication with food.
- B. Chew on sugarless gum or suck on hard, sour candies.
- C. Place a humidifier at your bedside every evening.
- D. Discontinue the medication and notify your provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for dry mouth associated with diphenhydramine is to chew on sugarless gum or suck on hard, sour candies. These actions stimulate saliva production, providing relief from dry mouth. Administering the medication with food (Choice A) may help reduce stomach upset but won't address dry mouth. Placing a humidifier at the bedside (Choice C) can help with dry air-related issues but won't specifically target dry mouth. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) without consulting the provider is not recommended and may lead to inadequate treatment of poison ivy.
5. A client is starting therapy with docetaxel. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Flushing
- B. Dyspnea
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Tinnitus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of docetaxel. Dyspnea may be a sign of a potentially life-threatening condition that the healthcare provider needs to address promptly. Flushing (Choice A) is not typically associated with docetaxel therapy. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is also not a common side effect of docetaxel. Tinnitus (Choice D) is not a usual finding with docetaxel and is not a priority over potential pulmonary toxicity indicated by dyspnea.
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