a nurse is caring for a client who has atrial fibrillation and a new prescription for dabigatran to prevent development of thrombosis which of the fol
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client with Atrial Fibrillation is prescribed Dabigatran to prevent Thrombosis. Which medication is prescribed concurrently to treat an adverse effect of Dabigatran?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is prescribed for clients taking dabigatran who experience abdominal pain and other gastrointestinal adverse effects associated with dabigatran use. Proton pump inhibitors help manage these symptoms effectively. Choice A, Vitamin K1, is incorrect as it antagonizes the activity of Dabigatran, counteracting its anticoagulant effect. Choice B, Protamine, is used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin, not dabigatran. Choice D, Probenecid, is not typically used to treat adverse effects of dabigatran.

2. A patient is being discharged with a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to monitor for leg cramps. Leg cramps can be a sign of hypokalemia, which is a potential adverse effect of Hydrochlorothiazide. By monitoring for leg cramps, the patient can detect signs of low potassium levels and report them to the healthcare provider promptly. This proactive approach helps prevent complications associated with hypokalemia. The other options are incorrect because taking Hydrochlorothiazide before bedtime or with food is not specific to the medication's adverse effects. Monitoring for increased blood pressure is not typically a common adverse effect of this medication.

3. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for adverse effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to monitor for adverse effects of Morphine IV is to check the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes. Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate alone may not provide early signs of respiratory depression, which is a critical adverse effect of Morphine IV.

4. A client has a new prescription for Alteplase. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots. Patients receiving Alteplase are at risk for bleeding complications, including intracranial bleeding. Monitoring for changes in the level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate early signs of bleeding, such as increased intracranial pressure. This rapid assessment allows for timely intervention and prevention of further complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Administering Alteplase within 4 hours of symptom onset is related to the time-sensitive nature of thrombolytic therapy for conditions like acute myocardial infarction or ischemic stroke. Reconstituting Alteplase with sterile saline is a correct step in preparing the medication for administration. Administering heparin concurrently with Alteplase is generally avoided due to the increased risk of bleeding.

5. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.

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