Nursing Elites

1. A client with Atrial Fibrillation is prescribed Dabigatran to prevent Thrombosis. Which medication is prescribed concurrently to treat an adverse effect of Dabigatran?

• A. Vitamin K1
• B. Protamine
• C. Omeprazole
• D. Probenecid

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is prescribed for clients taking dabigatran who experience abdominal pain and other gastrointestinal adverse effects associated with dabigatran use. Proton pump inhibitors help manage these symptoms effectively. Choice A, Vitamin K1, is incorrect as it antagonizes the activity of Dabigatran, counteracting its anticoagulant effect. Choice B, Protamine, is used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin, not dabigatran. Choice D, Probenecid, is not typically used to treat adverse effects of dabigatran.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of Hydromorphone IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication over 5 minutes.
• B. Administer a dose of Naloxone prior to giving the Hydromorphone.
• C. Assess the client's blood pressure prior to administration.
• D. Inject the medication into the client's subcutaneous tissue.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The healthcare professional should administer IV Hydromorphone slowly over 5 minutes to reduce the risk of hypotension and respiratory depression. Rapid administration can lead to adverse effects due to its potency. Choice B is incorrect because Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, not routinely administered with Hydromorphone. Choice C is important but not specific to the administration of Hydromorphone. Choice D is incorrect as Hydromorphone is intended for intravenous use, not subcutaneous injection.

3. Which of the following drugs is associated with hepatitis as a reaction?

• A. Valproic acid
• B. Quinidine
• C. Isoniazid
• D. Ethosuximide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hepatitis is a known side effect of isoniazid. It is important to monitor patients on isoniazid for signs of liver damage, including hepatitis, as part of their treatment regimen for tuberculosis.

4. A client in a substance abuse clinic is being assessed by a nurse after discontinuing disulfiram due to severe nausea and vomiting. What is the likely cause of the client's distress?

• A. The client demonstrated an allergic response to the medication.
• B. The client experienced a common side effect of the medication.
• C. The client consumed alcohol while taking the medication.
• D. The client took an overdose of the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Disulfiram, when combined with alcohol, leads to a severe reaction causing nausea and vomiting. Since the client experienced these symptoms after starting disulfiram, it is likely that they consumed alcohol while taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms are more indicative of the interaction with alcohol rather than an allergic response. Choice B is incorrect as severe nausea and vomiting are not common side effects of disulfiram alone. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication of an overdose based on the symptoms described.

5. A client has a fungal infection and a new prescription for amphotericin B. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider before initiating the medication?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Potassium 4.5 mEq/L
• C. BUN 55 mg/dL
• D. Glucose 120 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated BUN level of 55 mg/dL should be reported before starting amphotericin B due to its nephrotoxic effects. Amphotericin B can cause kidney damage, and an elevated BUN indicates impaired kidney function, increasing the risk of further renal damage with this medication. Sodium, potassium, and glucose levels are not directly associated with the nephrotoxic effects of amphotericin B, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.

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