Nursing Elites

1. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours.
• B. Offer oral hygiene every 2 hours.
• C. Anticipate medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery.
• D. Monitor fetal heart rate every 2 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Offering oral hygiene every 2 hours is essential for a client receiving opioid analgesics to prevent dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting, which are common adverse effects associated with opioid use. This intervention promotes comfort and enhances the client's well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate for a client in labor receiving opioid analgesics, as it may be challenging and unnecessary during this time. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's pain level and the duration of action of the opioid. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but the priority in this case is to address the client's comfort and well-being by offering oral hygiene.

2. A staff educator is reviewing medication dosages and factors that influence medication metabolism with a group of nurses at an in-service presentation. Which of the following factors should the educator include as a reason to administer lower medication dosages? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Increased renal secretion
• B. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes
• C. Liver failure
• D. Peripheral vascular disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Liver failure impairs metabolism, leading to increased medication concentrations. When liver function is compromised, lower dosages are necessary to prevent adverse effects. Increased renal secretion is not a reason for lower medication dosages, as it primarily affects excretion rather than metabolism. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes would usually require higher dosages to achieve the desired effect. Peripheral vascular disease does not directly impact medication metabolism or dosage requirements.

3. A client presents in the Emergency Department with a suspected MI. Which medication should NOT be given as soon as possible?

• A. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
• B. Morphine
• C. Aspirin (ASA)
• D. Metoprolol (Lopressor)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the setting of a suspected myocardial infarction (MI), the priority medications to administer as soon as possible include aspirin (ASA) and possibly morphine to manage pain and anxiety. Clopidogrel (Plavix) is not typically administered immediately in the emergency setting for MI management. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is indicated after aspirin administration and stabilization of the patient. Therefore, in this scenario, clopidogrel should NOT be given as a first-line medication for a suspected MI.

4. A patient states he experiences anxiety and has panic attacks at least once a week. What might be helpful for this patient?

• A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• B. Lithium
• C. Alprazolam (Xanax)
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alprazolam (Xanax) is a medication commonly prescribed to treat anxiety disorders and panic attacks. It belongs to the class of medications known as benzodiazepines, which work by enhancing the effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain to produce a calming effect. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug, not typically used for anxiety or panic attacks. Lithium is primarily used to treat bipolar disorder, not anxiety. Spironolactone is a diuretic primarily used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure, not anxiety or panic attacks.

5. A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's vital signs.
• B. Request a consult with a dietitian.
• C. Suggest that the client rests before eating the meal.
• D. Request an order for an antiemetic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should check the client's vital signs first because nausea and weakness can be signs of digoxin toxicity. Vital signs can provide immediate information on the client's condition and help guide further interventions. Monitoring vital signs will allow the nurse to assess for bradycardia, a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Requesting a dietitian consult (choice B) may be necessary but addressing the immediate concern of toxicity is the priority. Suggesting rest before eating (choice C) may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. Requesting an antiemetic (choice D) can be considered later but is not the initial action needed in this situation.

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