a nurse is administering amoxicillinclavulanic acid to a client the client reports urticaria and dyspnea which of the following medications should the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. When a client reports urticaria and dyspnea after receiving amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, which medication should be administered first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing symptoms of a severe allergic reaction. The priority intervention is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine acts quickly to reverse the effects of the allergic reaction and can be life-saving in cases of anaphylaxis. Albuterol is used for bronchodilation and may help with respiratory symptoms but is not the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. Diphenhydramine and prednisone are used for allergic reactions but are not as rapid-acting as epinephrine and should be considered after administering epinephrine in this situation.

2. A client with active tuberculosis asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacteria developing resistance to any single drug. This approach helps prevent treatment failure and ensures successful treatment outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple medications is not related to allergic reactions. Choice C is incorrect as the risk reduction is mainly focused on bacterial resistance rather than adverse reactions. Choice D is not relevant as the purpose of taking multiple medications is not to affect the tuberculin skin test results.

3. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

4. A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine has been prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks about the purpose of Methylnaltrexone. Which response should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat severe constipation unresponsive to laxatives in opioid-dependent clients. It functions by blocking the mu opioid receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, helping alleviate constipation associated with opioid use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Methylnaltrexone does not increase respirations, prevent dependence on Morphine, or work with Morphine to increase pain relief; its primary purpose is to relieve opioid-induced constipation.

5. A client reports taking Aspirin about four times daily for a sprained wrist. Which of the following prescribed medications taken by the client is contraindicated with aspirin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Warfarin. Aspirin increases the effect of anticoagulants like warfarin by inhibiting platelet aggregation, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the use of aspirin is generally contraindicated for clients taking warfarin. Choices A, B, and D are not contraindicated with aspirin. Digoxin, Metformin, and Nitroglycerin do not have significant interactions with Aspirin, unlike Warfarin, making them safe to use concomitantly.

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