ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored by the healthcare provider?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum glucose
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Prednisone, monitoring serum glucose levels is essential. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hyperglycemia. Therefore, regular monitoring of serum glucose helps in detecting and managing any potential hyperglycemic effects of the medication. Monitoring serum potassium, calcium, or sodium is not typically required when a client is on Prednisone unless there are specific risk factors or concerns related to these electrolytes.
2. A healthcare provider in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings are indicative of this condition?
- A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
- B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
- C. Severe pain around the eyes
- D. Intraocular pressure of 12mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a characteristic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is typically accompanied by other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. The acute rise in intraocular pressure leads to these symptoms, indicating a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more suggestive of conditions like age-related macular degeneration or diabetic retinopathy. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12mm Hg is within the normal range and not indicative of the acute rise seen in angle-closure glaucoma.
3. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?
- A. Intestinal ileus
- B. Neutropenia
- C. Delirium
- D. Hyperthermia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV nitroprusside is administered at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, resulting in mental status changes such as delirium. Monitoring thiocyanate levels during therapy is crucial to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL to prevent this adverse reaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because nitroprusside does not typically cause intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia as adverse reactions.
4. A client has a new prescription for Hydroxychloroquine to treat Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Nausea
- B. Hair loss
- C. Eye damage
- D. Drowsiness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Eye damage.' Hydroxychloroquine can cause severe adverse effects on the eyes, such as retinopathy, which can lead to permanent visual impairment. It is essential for clients to be aware of this potential adverse effect and report any changes in vision promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although nausea, hair loss, and drowsiness can occur with Hydroxychloroquine, they are not as severe or critical as the risk of eye damage.
5. A client is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as a sign of potential toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can lead to toxicity, which can manifest as various signs and symptoms, including bradycardia. Monitoring the client's heart rate closely is crucial to detect and manage potential toxicity early. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and hypocalcemia are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity; therefore, they are incorrect choices.
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