ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A client has a new prescription for Ondansetron. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication 30 minutes before chemotherapy.
- B. Expect your urine to turn orange.
- C. Increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
- D. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication 30 minutes before chemotherapy.' Ondansetron, an antiemetic, should be taken before chemotherapy to prevent nausea and vomiting. Taking it 30 minutes before chemotherapy ensures the medication is most effective in controlling chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Option B is unrelated to Ondansetron, option C is not necessary for this medication, and option D does not interact with Ondansetron but is relevant for other medications.
2. A client is prescribed Clopidogrel. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential adverse effects?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Platelet count
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. Blood glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so monitoring the client's platelet count is crucial to assess for potential bleeding complications. Changes in platelet count can indicate an increased risk of bleeding, a known adverse effect of Clopidogrel. Monitoring white blood cell count, hemoglobin, or blood glucose is not directly related to the potential adverse effects of Clopidogrel and would not provide relevant information regarding the medication's impact on platelet function.
3. When starting therapy with cisplatin, a client should report which of the following adverse effects as instructed by the nurse?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Nausea
- C. Constipation
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report tinnitus because it can be an indication of ototoxicity, a potential adverse effect of cisplatin. Ototoxicity can manifest as tinnitus, hearing loss, or balance disturbances, so it is crucial for the client to promptly report any changes in hearing such as tinnitus to prevent further damage.
4. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is beginning therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Prompt reporting of dyspnea allows for timely evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings that the client should report.
5. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid salt substitutes.
- B. Take this medication at bedtime.
- C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Take this medication with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Lisinopril is to avoid salt substitutes. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia, hence the importance of avoiding salt substitutes that may contain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid salt substitutes helps prevent potential adverse effects of increased potassium levels.
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