Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide. The client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Ototoxicity
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyponatremia is a potential adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide due to its diuretic action. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can cause sodium and water loss, potentially leading to hyponatremia. Monitoring for symptoms such as weakness, confusion, and muscle cramps can help detect hyponatremia early. Ototoxicity (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide. Hypoglycemia (choice C) is not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is more commonly associated with potassium-sparing diuretics rather than thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide.

2. A client requests information on the use of Feverfew. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. It is used to treat skin infections.
• B. It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.
• C. It can lessen nasal congestion in the common cold.
• D. It can relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is B: Feverfew is commonly used to decrease the frequency of migraine headaches. However, it is important to note that it has not been proven to relieve an existing migraine headache. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as Feverfew is not typically used for treating skin infections, lessening nasal congestion in the common cold, or relieving nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.

3. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is beginning therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Prompt reporting of dyspnea allows for timely evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings that the client should report.

4. A client has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You may develop a cough while taking this medication.
• B. You should stop taking this medication if you develop a rash.
• C. This medication cannot be given orally.
• D. This medication may cause your urine to turn yellow.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A rash can indicate an allergic reaction to ceftriaxone, which should be reported to the provider. It is crucial to instruct the client to discontinue the medication and seek medical attention if a rash develops to prevent potential serious adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cough is not a common side effect of ceftriaxone, ceftriaxone is typically administered parenterally, and a yellow discoloration of urine is a harmless side effect due to the color of the medication itself, respectively.

5. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who is starting therapy with paclitaxel. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neutropenia. Paclitaxel commonly causes neutropenia due to bone marrow suppression. It is essential for clients receiving this medication to monitor for signs of neutropenia, such as fever, chills, and increased susceptibility to infections, as it can increase the risk of serious complications.

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