ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client asks the nurse to explain the difference between stable and unstable angina. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. "Stable angina is predictable in its frequency, intensity, and duration. Unstable angina is when angina episodes become more frequent or severe, and occur during periods of rest."?
- B. "Unstable angina is caused by spasms of the coronary arteries. Stable angina is when angina episodes become more frequent or severe, and occur during periods of rest."?
- C. "Unstable angina is predictable in its frequency, intensity, and duration. Stable angina is when angina episodes become more frequent or severe, and occur during periods of rest."?
- D. "Stable angina is caused by spasms of the coronary arteries. Unstable angina is when angina episodes become more frequent or severe, and occur during periods of rest."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Stable angina is typically triggered by physical exertion or emotional stress and is predictable in its frequency, intensity, and duration. In contrast, unstable angina is characterized by angina episodes that are unexpected, more severe, prolonged, and can occur at rest. Understanding these differences can help healthcare providers assess and manage angina episodes effectively, ensuring appropriate interventions are implemented promptly based on the type of angina present.
2. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours.
- B. Offer oral hygiene every 2 hours.
- C. Anticipate medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery.
- D. Monitor fetal heart rate every 2 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Offering oral hygiene every 2 hours is essential for a client receiving opioid analgesics to prevent dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting, which are common adverse effects associated with opioid use. This intervention promotes comfort and enhances the client's well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate for a client in labor receiving opioid analgesics, as it may be challenging and unnecessary during this time. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's pain level and the duration of action of the opioid. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but the priority in this case is to address the client's comfort and well-being by offering oral hygiene.
3. A client is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of warfarin?
- A. Nausea
- B. Epistaxis
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Dyspepsia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, can be an indication of excessive anticoagulation while on warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner that helps prevent blood clots. Epistaxis can occur as a result of the blood-thinning effects of warfarin, leading to increased bleeding tendencies, including nosebleeds. Nausea, diarrhea, and dyspepsia are not typically associated with warfarin therapy; therefore, they are not the adverse effects the nurse should identify in a client receiving warfarin.
4. A hospitalized client has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should be prepared for transfusion?
- A. Whole blood
- B. Platelets
- C. Fresh frozen plasma
- D. Packed red blood cells
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the appropriate blood product for a client with an elevated aPTT as it contains various coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathies and prevent bleeding. Elevated aPTT indicates a deficiency in specific clotting factors, and fresh frozen plasma is rich in these factors. Whole blood, platelets, and packed red blood cells do not contain the necessary coagulation factors to correct an elevated aPTT, so they are not indicated in this situation.
5. When caring for a client receiving treatment with irinotecan, which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Hypertension
- C. Ototoxicity
- D. Neutropenia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is diarrhea. Irinotecan commonly causes diarrhea as an adverse effect due to its impact on the gastrointestinal tract. Monitoring for diarrhea is essential to prevent dehydration and manage this side effect effectively. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, ototoxicity, and neutropenia are not commonly associated with irinotecan therapy.
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