Nursing Elites

1. A client asks the nurse to explain the difference between stable and unstable angina. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. "Stable angina is predictable in its frequency, intensity, and duration. Unstable angina is when angina episodes become more frequent or severe, and occur during periods of rest."?
• B. "Unstable angina is caused by spasms of the coronary arteries. Stable angina is when angina episodes become more frequent or severe, and occur during periods of rest."?
• C. "Unstable angina is predictable in its frequency, intensity, and duration. Stable angina is when angina episodes become more frequent or severe, and occur during periods of rest."?
• D. "Stable angina is caused by spasms of the coronary arteries. Unstable angina is when angina episodes become more frequent or severe, and occur during periods of rest."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stable angina is typically triggered by physical exertion or emotional stress and is predictable in its frequency, intensity, and duration. In contrast, unstable angina is characterized by angina episodes that are unexpected, more severe, prolonged, and can occur at rest. Understanding these differences can help healthcare providers assess and manage angina episodes effectively, ensuring appropriate interventions are implemented promptly based on the type of angina present.

2. To which pharmacologic classification does the drug propranolol belong?

• A. Beta Blockers
• B. Cholinergics
• C. Immune globulins
• D. Barbiturates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol belongs to the pharmacologic classification of Beta Blockers. Beta blockers work by blocking the action of adrenaline and other stress hormones on beta-adrenergic receptors. They are commonly used to manage conditions like high blood pressure, angina, and arrhythmias. Choice B, Cholinergics, is incorrect because cholinergics work by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system, unlike beta blockers that block adrenergic receptors. Choice C, Immune globulins, is incorrect as it refers to antibodies used to boost the immune system, not the mechanism of action of propranolol. Choice D, Barbiturates, is incorrect as barbiturates are a different class of drugs that act as central nervous system depressants, primarily used as sedatives and anesthetics.

3. A client is taking Amiodarone to treat Atrial Fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of Amiodarone toxicity?

• A. Light yellow urine
• B. Report of tinnitus
• C. Productive cough
• D. Blue-gray skin discoloration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Blue-gray skin discoloration is a common sign of Amiodarone toxicity, known as blue-gray discoloration, which can affect areas like the face, neck, or hands. It is important to monitor for this side effect, as it can be a visible indicator of potential toxicity. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Light yellow urine is not typically associated with Amiodarone toxicity. Tinnitus is not a common manifestation of Amiodarone toxicity. A productive cough is not a recognized symptom of Amiodarone toxicity.

4. What is the therapeutic class of Valproate?

• A. Anticoagulant
• B. Antianxiety, benzodiazepines
• C. Anticonvulsant, vascular headache suppressant
• D. Mood stabilizer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Valproate belongs to the therapeutic class of anticonvulsants. It is primarily used to manage seizures but is also effective in treating vascular headaches. Therefore, it is not classified as an anticoagulant, antianxiety medication, or mood stabilizer. Option A, anticoagulant, is incorrect as valproate does not have anticoagulant properties. Option B, antianxiety benzodiazepines, is incorrect as valproate is not primarily used to treat anxiety disorders with benzodiazepines. Option D, mood stabilizer, is incorrect as valproate is not classified as a mood stabilizer, although it can be used in some cases for mood disorders, its primary therapeutic class is anticonvulsant.

5. A client is undergoing preparation for extensive colorectal surgery. Which of the following oral antibiotics should be administered to suppress normal flora in the GI tract?

• A. Kanamycin
• B. Gentamicin
• C. Neomycin
• D. Tobramycin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neomycin. Neomycin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, is administered orally before GI surgery to eliminate the normal flora in the large intestine. This helps reduce the risk of postoperative infections by decreasing the bacterial load in the gut. Choices A, B, and D (Kanamycin, Gentamicin, Tobramycin) are not typically used to suppress normal flora in the GI tract before colorectal surgery.

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