Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse initiate to prevent transmission of the disease?

• A. Contact precautions
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Droplet precautions
• D. Protective environment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tuberculosis is spread through small droplets measuring less than 5 microns, which can remain airborne for extended periods. The nurse should place a client who has TB under airborne precautions to prevent the spread of microbes. Choice A, contact precautions, are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, droplet precautions, are for diseases spread by larger droplets. Choice D, protective environment, is used for immunocompromised clients to protect them from environmental pathogens.

2. What are the expected findings in a patient experiencing hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves on an ECG
• B. Elevated ST segments
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on an ECG. Hypokalemia is characterized by flattened T waves on an ECG, which is an early indicator of low potassium levels. Elevated ST segments (Choice B) are associated with conditions like myocardial infarction, not hypokalemia. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are typically seen in hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Bradycardia (Choice D) can be a manifestation of severe hypokalemia but is not as specific as flattened T waves on an ECG.

3. What is the correct response when a patient receiving an enema reports abdominal cramping?

• A. Lower the height of the enema container
• B. Stop the enema procedure
• C. Remove the enema tubing
• D. Continue the enema at a slower rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response when a patient receiving an enema reports abdominal cramping is to lower the height of the enema container. Lowering the height reduces the flow rate, which can help relieve cramping. Stopping the procedure (choice B) may not be necessary if adjusting the height resolves the issue. Removing the enema tubing (choice C) is not the initial step to take when addressing abdominal cramping during an enema. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (choice D) might not be as effective as lowering the height of the container to alleviate cramping.

4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?

• A. Low potassium diet
• B. High fiber diet
• C. Low fat diet
• D. Low sodium diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Low fat diet. A low-fat diet is recommended for clients with chronic cholecystitis to reduce episodes of biliary colic. High-fat foods can trigger symptoms by causing the gallbladder to contract, leading to pain. Choice A, a low potassium diet, is not specifically indicated for chronic cholecystitis. Choice B, a high fiber diet, though generally healthy, may worsen symptoms in some individuals with cholecystitis due to the increased intestinal gas production. Choice D, a low sodium diet, is not directly related to the management of chronic cholecystitis.

5. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection
• B. Monitor for anemia
• C. Monitor for dehydration
• D. Monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

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