a nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis which of the following precautions should the nurse initiate to prevent transmi

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse initiate to prevent transmission of the disease?

A. Contact precautions
B. Airborne precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Protective environment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tuberculosis is spread through small droplets measuring less than 5 microns, which can remain airborne for extended periods. The nurse should place a client who has TB under airborne precautions to prevent the spread of microbes. Choice A, contact precautions, are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, droplet precautions, are for diseases spread by larger droplets. Choice D, protective environment, is used for immunocompromised clients to protect them from environmental pathogens.

2. A patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction needs immediate treatment. Which medication should be administered first?

A. Albuterol via nebulizer
B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
C. Aminophylline IV
D. Methylprednisolone IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is a rapid-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing by opening up the airways. During an allergic reaction causing wheezing, prompt relief is crucial, making Albuterol the first-line treatment. Choice B, Cromolyn via nebulizer, is used more for preventing asthma symptoms rather than providing immediate relief. Choice C, Aminophylline IV, is a bronchodilator with a slower onset of action compared to Albuterol. Choice D, Methylprednisolone IV, is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and is not the first-line treatment for acute wheezing in an allergic reaction.

3. What is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
B. White blood cell count 4,500/mm3
C. Potassium levels 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
D. Hemoglobin levels below 12g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV to assess the status of their immune system. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and a high risk of opportunistic infections. This value is used to guide treatment decisions and assess the need for prophylaxis against specific infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring white blood cell count, potassium levels, and hemoglobin levels, although important in HIV patients, are not as crucial as monitoring the CD4 T-cell count for assessing immune function and disease progression.

4. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?

A. Increased risk of infection
B. Increased risk of bleeding
C. Decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections
D. Increased risk of cardiac complications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.

5. What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves on ECG
B. Prominent U waves on ECG
C. Widened QRS complexes on ECG
D. ST elevation on ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.