Nursing Elites

1. A client has a disposable three-chamber chest tube in place. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a complication?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber
• B. Occasional bubbling in the water-seal chamber
• C. Constant bubbling in the suction-control chamber
• D. Fluctuations in the fluid level in the water-seal chamber

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates air is leaking into the pleural space, which is a complication. The water-seal chamber should have intermittent bubbling during normal functioning. Occasional bubbling in the water-seal chamber is normal and shows the system is working as intended. Constant bubbling in the suction-control chamber suggests an issue with the suction control. Fluctuations in the fluid level in the water-seal chamber are an expected finding.

2. A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Instruct the client to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet.
• B. Prepare preoperative teaching for an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter.
• C. Refer the client to a chronic illness support group.
• D. Teach the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with an alteration in the CYP2C19 gene do not metabolize warfarin (Coumadin) well, leading to higher blood levels and more side effects. As this client is a poor candidate for warfarin therapy, the prescriber will most likely recommend the implantation of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. This device helps prevent blood clots from reaching the lungs, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism.

3. A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Albuterol (Proventil)
• B. Ipratropium (Atrovent)
• C. Salmeterol (Serevent)
• D. Fluticasone (Flovent)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of asthma, the priority is to administer a short-acting beta2-agonist like Albuterol (Proventil) first. Albuterol acts quickly to dilate the airways and provide immediate relief of bronchospasm. Ipratropium (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic that can be used as an adjunct therapy. Salmeterol (Serevent) is a long-acting beta2-agonist intended for maintenance therapy, not for acute exacerbations. Fluticasone (Flovent) is a corticosteroid used for long-term asthma control and should not be the initial medication given during an acute exacerbation.

4. A client with asthma has developed viral pharyngitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Petechiae on the chest and abdomen
• B. WBC 16,000/mm3
• C. Negative throat culture
• D. Severe hyperemia of pharyngeal mucosa

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Viral pharyngitis is typically caused by a virus, not bacteria, so a negative throat culture is an expected finding. The presence of petechiae on the chest and abdomen (Choice A) is not a common manifestation of viral pharyngitis. Elevated WBC count (Choice B) is more indicative of a bacterial infection rather than a viral one. Severe hyperemia of the pharyngeal mucosa (Choice D) is a possible finding in pharyngitis but is not specific to viral pharyngitis.

5. A client is being treated for inhalational anthrax following bioterrorism exposure. Which of the following medications should NOT be expected as a common treatment for anthrax?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Doxycycline
• C. Amoxicillin
• D. Penicillin G

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Penicillin G is NOT commonly used to treat anthrax. Anthrax is typically treated with antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin and doxycycline due to penicillin's limited efficacy against anthrax bacteria. Amoxicillin is also not a preferred choice for anthrax treatment. Therefore, penicillin G would not be expected as a primary medication for anthrax treatment following bioterrorism exposure.

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