Nursing Elites

1. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?

• A. Cefaclor
• B. Cefazolin
• C. Cefepime
• D. Cephalexin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.

2. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which of the following preexisting conditions can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?

• A. Peptic ulcer disease
• B. Breast cancer
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Schizophrenia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ketamine is known to produce psychological effects, such as hallucinations. Therefore, individuals with schizophrenia are at increased risk of experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms if given Ketamine, making it a contraindication for its use as an intravenous anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for Ketamine use as an intravenous anesthetic.

3. A client has been prescribed Alendronate for osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water after getting up in the morning.
• B. Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• C. Chew the tablet and mix it with applesauce if swallowing is difficult.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime to minimize the chance of esophageal irritation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Alendronate for osteoporosis is to take the medication with a full glass of water after getting up in the morning. This is important to reduce the risk of esophageal irritation. Choice B is also correct as remaining upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation and ensures proper absorption. Choice C is incorrect because Alendronate tablets should not be chewed or mixed with any other substance. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medication at bedtime increases the risk of esophageal irritation due to lying down after ingestion.

4. A client has a prescription for Nitroglycerin, and a nurse is providing teaching. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take one tablet every 15 minutes until pain is relieved.
• B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three doses.
• C. Take one tablet at bedtime.
• D. Take one tablet on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Nitroglycerin is to take one tablet at the onset of chest pain, then repeat every 5 minutes for up to three doses. Option A is incorrect because taking a tablet every 15 minutes until pain is relieved may lead to delayed intervention. Option C is incorrect as taking Nitroglycerin at bedtime is not indicated for chest pain. Option D is incorrect as Nitroglycerin should be taken sublingually at the onset of chest pain, not on an empty stomach.

5. A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?

• A. It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.
• B. A pharmacist is the person to answer that question.
• C. Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.
• D. The oral medication you will take after this IV will dissolve the clot.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.

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