a nurse is caring for a client who has a cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram negative bacteria which of the following cephalosporin antibiotics sh
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Lisinopril, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Expect a persistent, dry cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent, dry cough as a side effect. This should be reported to the healthcare provider if it becomes bothersome. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect so the client is aware and can seek appropriate guidance if needed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Lisinopril with food is not required. Increasing potassium-rich foods is not a specific instruction for Lisinopril, and taking the medication at bedtime is not a typical recommendation associated with this medication.

3. A client has a new prescription for Ranitidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Ranitidine is to take the medication at bedtime. Ranitidine is best taken at night to reduce nighttime stomach acid production, providing optimal relief for conditions like gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and ulcers.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 750 mL IV to infuse over 6 hr. How many mL/hr should the IV pump be set to deliver?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate, divide the total volume by the total time: 750 mL / 6 hr = 125 mL/hr. Therefore, the IV pump should be set to deliver 125 mL/hr to infuse D5W 750 mL over 6 hours. Choice B (100 mL/hr) is incorrect because it does not accurately divide the total volume by the total time. Choice C (150 mL/hr) and Choice D (200 mL/hr) are incorrect as they are not the correct flow rates needed to infuse the D5W solution over the specified time period.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who is asking about conjugated equine estrogens. The provider should inform the client this medication is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conjugated equine estrogens are contraindicated in clients with a history of thrombophlebitis due to the increased risk of thrombotic events associated with estrogen use. Thrombophlebitis is characterized by inflammation of a vein with the formation of a clot, and estrogen can further exacerbate this condition, leading to serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for conjugated equine estrogens. Atrophic vaginitis and osteoporosis are conditions where estrogen therapy may actually be indicated. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is another condition where estrogen therapy can be used to help regulate menstrual bleeding.

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