ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?
- A. Cefaclor
- B. Cefazolin
- C. Cefepime
- D. Cephalexin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.
2. Which of the following drugs has a therapeutic effect that prevents thromboembolic events?
- A. Warfarin
- B. Amlodipine
- C. Nitroglycerin
- D. Clopidogrel
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent thromboembolic events by inhibiting the formation of blood clots. It is commonly used to reduce the risk of strokes or heart attacks in patients at risk for thrombosis.
3. A client has a new prescription for Metformin. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Take this medication every other day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Metformin is to take it with food. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects and ensures better absorption of the medication. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid foods high in potassium when taking Metformin. Choice C is incorrect because Metformin is usually taken with meals, not at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as Metformin is typically taken daily, not every other day.
4. Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide
- D. Bumetanide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by antagonizing the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and sodium excretion. This mechanism makes it a suitable choice for conditions where potassium retention is desired, such as in patients with heart failure or liver cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and bumetanide are loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics, respectively, which promote the excretion of potassium.
5. A client has a new prescription for a combination of oral NRTIs (abacavir, lamivudine, and zidovudine) for the treatment of HIV. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?
- A. These medications work by blocking HIV entry into cells.
- B. These medications work by weakening the cell wall of the HIV virus.
- C. These medications work by inhibiting enzymes to prevent HIV replication.
- D. These medications work by preventing protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The NRTI antiretroviral medications this client is prescribed work by inhibiting the enzyme reverse transcriptase, thus preventing HIV replication. By inhibiting this crucial enzyme, the drug interferes with the virus's ability to replicate and spread in the body. Choice A is incorrect because NRTIs do not block HIV entry into cells. Choice B is incorrect as NRTIs do not weaken the cell wall of the virus. Choice D is incorrect as NRTIs do not prevent protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
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