ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI
1. What is a common side effect of Albuterol?
- A. Paradoxical Bronchospasm
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Seizures
- D. Vision Loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A common side effect of Albuterol is paradoxical bronchospasm, a condition where the airways become more constricted instead of relaxing. This can be a serious adverse reaction to the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not commonly associated with Albuterol use. Diarrhea and seizures are not typically reported side effects of Albuterol, and vision loss is not a recognized side effect of this medication.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is receiving treatment with carboplatin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional monitor?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Ototoxicity
- C. Hypertension
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The healthcare professional should monitor the client for ototoxicity when receiving carboplatin. Ototoxicity is a known serious adverse effect associated with this medication, characterized by damage to the inner ear structures leading to hearing loss or balance issues. Monitoring for hearing changes and balance problems is crucial to detect ototoxicity early and prevent further complications. Hyperglycemia, hypertension, and bradycardia are not typically associated with carboplatin therapy.
3. What is the classification of furosemide?
- A. Loop diuretic
- B. Anticoagulant
- C. Iron supplement
- D. Anticonvulsant
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is classified as a loop diuretic, not an anticoagulant, iron supplement, or anticonvulsant. Loop diuretics, like furosemide, act in the loop of Henle in the kidney to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to increased urine output. This mechanism makes them effective in treating conditions such as edema and hypertension. Therefore, the correct classification for furosemide is a loop diuretic (Choice A).
4. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
- B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hours
- C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a potentially dangerous condition. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in serious consequences such as cardiac dysrhythmias. The healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider, withhold the medication, and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are crucial in clients receiving spironolactone. The other options do not directly relate to the potential adverse effects of spironolactone and are within normal limits, making them less urgent to report.
5. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report that can indicate the medication is effective?
- A. Headache
- B. Nausea
- C. Dizziness
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Headache is a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory effects. It can indicate that the medication is working effectively by dilating blood vessels, improving blood flow, and reducing cardiac workload. Therefore, the client should report experiencing headaches as it may suggest the therapeutic action of nitroglycerin. Nausea, dizziness, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the therapeutic effects of nitroglycerin and should be reported as adverse effects that may necessitate medical attention.
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